Chủ đề đọc hiểu thi THPTQG

CÁC CHỦ ĐỀ ĐỌC HIỂU TRONG ĐỀ THI THPTQG 2017, 2018, 2019, 2020 Compiled by Mrs Trang Anh Facebook: Mrstranganh87 ĐỀ MINH HỌA LẦN 1- 2017 TOPIC: WAYS OF SOCIALIZING Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. When you first arrive in a foreign culture, often your first reaction is completely positive. Everything seems exciting, different and fascinating. It’s an (31) . If you are just on a short holiday, you will probably never leave this phase. (32) , if you stay longer, your attitude can start to change. As you start to realize (33) little you really understand the new culture, life can get frustrating. People misunderstand what you are trying to say, or they may laugh at you when you say something incorrectly. Even simple things, like posting a letter, can seem very difficult to you. Thus, you are likely to get angry or upset when things go wrong. With time, though, you start to (34) to become more comfortable with the differences and better able to handle frustrating situations. Your (35) of humor reappears. Finally, you may feel enthusiastic about the culture once again, enjoy living in it, and even prefer certain aspects of the culture to your own. (Adapted from Navigate – Coursebook, OUP 2015) Question 31: A. adventure B. adventurous C. adventurer D. adventurously Question 32: A. Therefore B. Or C. However D. Nor Question 33: A. whether B. how C. if D. what Question 34: A. replace B. maintain C. adjust D. keep Question 35: A. taste B. sense C. touch D. sound TOPIC: CULTURAL DIVERSITY - MARRIAGE Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Marriage nowadays is a choice people make on their own, but this has not always been the case in society. Thousands of years ago, the average lifespan was shorter than it is today. A man usually lived until he was about 40 years old, while women died even sooner because of childbirth. There were many wars and illnesses, and people had to protect themselves by having more children while they were still young. The parents lived through their children. Marriage was not so much a romantic love story but a business transaction, or deal. Most marriages were arranged between parents while their children were still very young. It was the custom that the fathers made the decision on whom their children were going to marry. The mothers had little say in it since they rarely made any decisions outside the household. The fathers would meet to arrange the wedding date and the money given for the bride on her wedding date. The more money and land a girl had, the more chances she had to marry well. Therefore, it was important that her father choose the bridegroom very well. Usually, it was someone who came from a good family or who was rich too. It was very unlikely that people married outside their social class. A few well-off and rich merchants got to marry poorer noblewomen and became King’s business advisors. In a way, poor peasants had an easier choice as it was less important whom they married. The practice of arranged marriage is still common in some countries in the Middle East, such as India or Pakistan. Here, social classes are still strongly divided and very well-kept. Often, however, arranged marriages are a sign that people do not want to let go of the past, which gives them comfort and security in an ever-changing world. (Adapted from Longman Essence Reading, Vol. 2) Question 36: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Marriage as a business transaction today. B. Mothers' roles in their children's marriage. C. Marriage practices in modern society. D. The practice of arranged marriage. Question 37: The word "it" in paragraph 1 refers to . A. marriage B. a choice C. society D. the average lifespan Question 38: According to paragraph 1, women died even sooner than men because of . A. wars B. illnesses C. childbirth D. marriage Question 39: According to paragraph 2, richer girls were more likely to . A. become noblewomen B. marry well C. succeed in business D. marry peasants Question 40: The author mentions all of the following in the passage EXCEPT . A. People tended to marry outside their social class B. Men made almost all decisions inside the family C. Marriage used to be a deal between two families D. The wedding date was decided by the fathers Question 41: The word "bridegroom" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to . A. bridesmaid B. bride C. daughter-in-law D. son-in-law Question 42: The phrase "let go of" in paragraph 3 mostly means . A. give up B. turn off C. save up D. give in TOPIC: ENDANGER SPECIES Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. A ghostly animal creeps silently through a Florida swamp. It’s a rare type of big cat known as a Florida panther, one of only 80 to 100 such panthers left in the world. Scientists must work to save these remaining panthers from extinction, but their secretive nature is making it difficult. They are attaching a special transmitter to each Florida panther so they can follow their movements, range, and habits. The technology these transmitters use is called satellite tracking. The scientists are dedicated professionals, but they are not pioneers. Their colleagues before them have attached tiny transmitters to many different kinds of wild animals, including birds, fish, and big cats. So the Florida scientists are using their methods. Firstly, they must trap and tranquillize the panther. Then, the transmitter is attached to a harness and strapped to the panther’s body. Each harness is custom designed and manually adjusted for panthers so it fits comfortably. Scientists don’t want the transmitter to interfere with the panther’s natural habits. The point of tracking them is to find out as much as they can about their natural habits. Once the tracking transmitter is in place, the information it records is sent to an orbiting satellite. The satellite can see the transmitter that is attached to the panther, even when it is out of sight of a biologist on the ground. The satellite collects information from the transmitter about the panther’s exact location. Once the information is received, it is transmitted back to Earth so it can be recorded by the scientists. Scientists can use the information in many different ways. They can follow the panthers on the ground and observe their behavior. Alternatively, they can use the information to determine the panthers’ ranges and to understand their social patterns. They can also track how environmental changes like weather conditions affect their movements and health. All this information can be used to provide ideal conditions for the endangered panthers. It can also be used to protect the panthers from danger. In the end, the panther silently slips away through the trees. Around its shoulders a transmitter is sending signals via satellite to a dedicated biologist. The biologist is using the information the transmitter provides to save the Florida panthers from extinction. With the help of satellite tracking these beautiful cats have a better chance of survival in the modern world. (Adapted from http://www.thereadingplanet.com) Question 43: What is the passage mainly about? A. Scientists dedicated to saving Florida panthers. B. Different methods of tracking Florida panthers. C. The use of a tracking device to protect Florida panthers. D. Florida panthers' secretive nature and habits. Question 44: According to the passage, what information does the satellite collect from the transmitter? A. The chance of panthers’ survival. B. The panther’s exact location C. The biologists on the ground. D. The total number of panthers. Question 45: Florida panthers are characterized as the animals that . A. tend to remain hidden from people B. are abundant in number C. live with the spirit of ghosts D. can be easily followed Question 46: According to the passage, which of the following about the tracking transmitter is NOT true? A. Scientists use the information the transmitter provides to save the panther. B. The transmitter helps scientists learn about the panther’s habits. C. The transmitter is fastened to the panther’s body for tracking purposes. D. The Florida panther is the first animal to be attached with the transmitter. Question 47: The phrase "tranquillize the panther" in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by . A. feed the panther properly B. make the panther calm C. put the panther in a cage D. handle the panther carefully Question 48: The phrase "custom designed" in paragraph 2 probably means . A. specially made for panthers B. functioned according to a custom C. skilfully created by hands D. created by famous designers Question 49: The word "their" in paragraph 4 refers to . A. the panthers’ ranges B. the transmitters C. the panthers D. the scientists Question 50: Which of the following could best describe the author’s attitude in the passage? A. Objective B. Negative C. Sarcastic D. Sympathetic ĐỀ THI THPTQG 2017- MÃ ĐỀ 401 TOPIC: BOOKS Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 24. In the early twentieth century, an American woman named Emily Post wrote a book on etiquette. This book explained the proper behavior Americans should follow in many different social (23) , from birthday parties to funerals. But in modern society, it is not simply to know the proper rules for behavior in your own country. It is necessary for people (24) ______work or travel abroad to understand the rules of etiquette in other cultures as well. Cultural (25) can be found in such simple processes as giving or receiving a gift. In Western cultures, a gift can be given to the receiver with relatively little ceremony. When a gift is offered, the receiver usually takes the gift and expresses his or her thanks. (26) ____, in some Asian countries, the act of gift-giving may appear confusing to Westerners. In Chinese culture, both the giver and receiver understand that the receiver will typically refuse to take the gift several times before he or she finally accepts it. In addition, to (27) ________respect for the receiver, it is common in several Asian cultures to use both hands when offering a gift to another person. (Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher) Question 23. A. positions B. conditions C. situations D. locations Question 24. A. who B. which C. where D. whose Question 25. A. differences B. different C. differently D. differ Question 26. A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. Otherwise Question 27. A. show B. get C. feel D. take TOPIC: CULTURAL DIVERSITY Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34. Different cultures follow their own special customs when a child's baby teeth fall out. In Korea, for example, they have the custom of throwing lost teeth up on the roof of a house. According to tradition, a magpie will come and take the tooth. Later, the magpie will return with a new tooth for the child. In other Asian countries, such as Japan and Vietnam, children follow a similar tradition of throwing their lost teeth onto the roofs of houses. Birds aren't the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and Spain, tradition says a mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia, dogs are responsible for taking teeth away. Dogs are highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian angels of the people. Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby tooth is fed to a guardian angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child's lost tooth in a piece of meat and feed it to a dog. The idea of giving lost teeth to an angel or fairy is also a tradition in the West. Many children in Western countries count on the Tooth Fairy to leave money or presents in exchange for a tooth. The exact origins of the Tooth Fairy are a mystery, although the story probably began in England or Ireland centuries ago. According to tradition, a child puts a lost tooth under his or her pillow before going to bed. In the wee hours, while the child is sleeping, the Tooth Fairy takes the tooth and leaves something else under the pillow. In France, the Tooth Fairy leaves a small gift. In the United States, however, the Tooth Fairy usually leaves money. These days, the rate is $1 to $5 per tooth, adding up to a lot of money from the Tooth Fairy! (Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen) Question 28. What is the passage mainly about? A. Traditions concerning children's lost teeth B. Presents for young children's lost teeth C. Animals eating children's lost teeth D. Customs concerning children's new teeth Question 29. The word "their" in paragraph 1 refers to . A. houses' B. roofs' C. children's D. countries' Question 30. According to the passage, where is a child's lost tooth thought to be taken away by a mouse? A. In Mexico and Spain B. In Mongolia C. In Japan and Vietnam D. In Korea Question 31. According to paragraph 2, parents in Mongolia feed their child's lost tooth to a dog because . A. they know that dogs are very responsible animals B. they believe that this will make their child's new tooth good and strong C. they think dogs like eating children's teeth D. they hope that their child will get some gifts for his or her tooth Question 32. The word "origins" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _ . A. countries B. families C. beginnings D. stories Question 33. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the tradition of tooth giving in the West? A. Children give money to the Tooth Fairy. B. Children put their lost teeth under their pillows. C. Children hope to get money or gifts from the Tooth Fairy. D. Lost teeth are traditionally given to an angel or fairy. Question 34. The phrase "the wee hours" in paragraph 3 probably refers to the period of time . A. early in the evening B. soon after midnight C. late in the morning D. long before bedtime TOPIC: ENVIRONMENT – ENDANGERED SPECIES Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. Earth is richly supplied with different types of living organisms which co-exist in their environments, forming complex, interrelated communities. Living organisms depend on one another for nutrients, shelter, and other benefits. The extinction of one species can set off a chain reaction that affects many other species, particularly if the loss occurs near the bottom of the food chain. For example, the extinction of a particular insect or plant might seem inconsequential. However, there may be fish or small animals that depend on that resource for foodstuffs. The loss can threaten the survival of these creatures and larger predators that prey upon them. Extinction can have a ripple effect that spreads throughout nature. In addition to its biological consequences, extinction poses a moral dilemma for humans, the only species capable of saving the others. The presence of humans on the planet has affected all other life forms, particularly plants and animals. Human lifestyles have proven to be incompatible with the survival of some other species. Purposeful efforts have been made to eliminate animals that prey on people, livestock, crops, or pose any threat to human livelihoods. Some wild animals have been decimated by human desire for meat, hides, fur, or other body parts with commercial value. Likewise, demand for land, water, and other natural resources has left many wild plants and animals with little to no suitable habitat. Humans have also affected nature by introducing nonnative species to local areas and producing pollutants having a negative impact on the environment. The combination of these human-related effects and natural obstacles such as disease or low birthrates has proven to be too much for some species to overcome. They have no chance of survival without human help. As a result, societies have difficult choices to make about the amount of effort and money they are willing to spend to save imperiled species. Will people accept limits on their property rights, recreational activities, and means of livelihood to save a plant or an animal? Should saving such popular species as whales and dolphins take priority over saving obscure, annoying, or fearful species? Is it the responsibility of humans to save every kind of life form from disappearing, or is extinction an inevitable part of nature, in which the strong survive and the weak perish? These are some difficult questions that people face as they ponder the fate of other species living on this planet. (Source: http://www.encyclopedia.com) Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The importance of living organisms B. Causes of animal extinction C. Humans and endangered species D. Measures to protect endangered species Question 36. The word "inconsequential" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to . A. unimportant B. unavoidable C. unexpected D. unrecognizable Question 37. Which of the following can result from the loss of one species in a food chain? A. There might be a lack of food resources for some other species. B. Animals will shift to another food chain in the community. C. Larger predators will look for other types of prey. D. The connections among the creatures in the food chain become closer. Question 38. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to . A. natural obstacles B. low birthrates C. some species D. human-related effects Question 39. In paragraph 2, non-native species are mentioned as . A. an achievement of human beings B. a harmful factor to the environment C. a kind of useful plants D. a kind of harmless animals Question 40. The word "perish" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to . A. disappear B. complete C. remain D. develop Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Some animals and plants cannot survive without human help. B. No other species can threaten the survival of humans on Earth. C. The existence of humans is at the expense of some other species. D. Humans have difficult choices to make about saving endangered species. Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Animal and plant species which pose threats to humans will die out soon. B. Humans will make changes in their lifestyles to save other species. C. The dilemma humans face between maintaining their lives and saving other species remains. D. Saving popular animal and plant species should be given a high priority. ĐỀ THI THPTQG 2017- MÃ ĐỀ 402 TOPIC: EDUCATION- HIGHER EDUCATION Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27. As teenagers approach university level, a decision has to be made on what course to pursue. In this world of diversity, (23)______ such a choice is not easy for both children and parents. In the old days, it was not much a problem to do the task because there were not so many diverse learning areas to choose from. Besides, there were only a few distinctive professional careers like doctor, engineer, accountant, nurse, teacher, etc. to think about. Most higher learning usually led to a financially successful life. (24)______, the cost of education was not so high. Today's world is entirely different from the things (25)______ have just been described. The job market is constantly changing due to innovative technology and new (26)______. Meanwhile, most teenagers have difficulty in identifying their own interests. There are a variety of well-organized career talks and student counseling workshops to guide and help teenagers (27)______ what course to take. Furthermore, psychological tests are also used. Certain instruments such as surveys, interviews and computer software can help to find out preferences, interests, or learning styles of the students. (Source: Essential Reading for IELTS by Humin & John A. Gordon) Question 23. A. making B. taking C. giving D. having Question 24. A. In addition B. Otherwise C. For example D. Therefore Question 25. A. when B. that C. what D. where Question 26. A. competition B. competitively C. competitive D. compete Question 27. A. apply B. study C. decide D. employ TOPIC: BOOKS Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34. Children all around the world love to read comic books. Maybe they like to read the kind of comic books that come out once a month, like Spiderman or Batman, or maybe they like mangastyle comic books. That means that publishers who make comic books need to keep in touch with the things young people like to do. One thing that many young people today are interested in is technology, so of course kids want to read digital comic books on electronic devices. Let's take Japanese manga as an example. There are lots of people around the world who enjoy reading manga. However, in the past, it was difficult to find translated versions of manga in comic bookstores. But that did not stop manga fans. Some fans who could translate Japanese into their own language started translating manga themselves. Then they scanned the pages of manga books and uploaded the scanned pages to the Internet with their translation. This practice has become so popular. People in the comic book industry made up a name for it. By combining the words scan and translation, they call it "scanlation", and it is a big problem today. The people who do scanlation usually share their manga for free, so readers do not buy manga books. Writers, artists, and publishers all end up losing money because of scanlation. Another problem is piracy in the comic book industry. Illegal copies of old and brand new comics alike have been hurting comic book sales. Despite the progress made in converting comics to digital formats, hardcopy comic books are still by far the most popular format among fans. In the meantime, comic book publishers and stores will just have to keep an eye on their buyers' habits. As the popularity of digital books for e-readers and tablets grows, the popularity of digital comic books will grow as well. (Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher) Question 28. What is the passage mainly about? A. The need for digital comic books B. Children's most favourite type of books C. Problems in the book industry D. The manga industry in Japan Question 29. The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to ______. A. children B. comic books C. publishers D. things Question 30. According to paragraph 1, Spiderman is the name of ______. A. a TV programme B. a comic book C. an electronic device D. a child Question 31. According to paragraph 2, the practice of "scanlation" mostly involves ______. A. selling translated manga books B. scanning and translating manga books C. scanning uploaded manga books D. translating uploaded manga books Question 32. According to the passage, in the past, some manga fans who knew Japanese translated manga because ______. A. it was enjoyable to translate Japanese books B. they wanted to make a name for themselves C. it was difficult to buy translated manga books D. they wanted to read manga for free Question 33. According to paragraph 2, who could benefit from scanlation? A. Readers B. Publishers C. Writers D. Artists Question 34. The word "piracy" in paragraph 2 probably means the act of ______. A. controlling the production of a book B. hurting the sale of illegal comic books C. copying and using a book illegally D. advertising a book without permission TOPIC: ENVIRONMENT - POLLUTION Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. The oceans are so vast and deep that until fairly recently, it was widely assumed that no matter how much trash and chemicals humans dumped into them, the effects would be negligible. Proponents of dumping in the oceans even had a catchphrase: "The solution to pollution is dilution." Today, we need look no further than the New Jersey-size dead zone that forms each summer in the Mississippi River Delta, or the thousand-mile-wide swath of decomposing plastic in the northern Pacific Ocean to see that this "dilution" policy has helped place a once flourishing ocean ecosystem on the brink of collapse. There is evidence that the oceans have suffered at the hands of mankind for millennia. But recent studies show that degradation, particularly of shoreline areas, has accelerated dramatically in the past three centuries as industrial discharge and run-off from farms and coastal cities have increased. Pollution is the introduction of harmful contaminants that are outside the norm for a given ecosystem. Common man-made pollutants reaching the oceans include pesticides, herbicides, chemical fertilizers, detergents, oil, sewage, plastics, and other solids. Many of these pollutants collect at the ocean's depths, where they are consumed by small marine organisms and introduced into the global food chain. Many ocean pollutants are released into the environment far upstream from coastlines. Nitrogen-rich fertilizers applied by farmers inland, for example, end up in local streams, rivers, and groundwater and are eventually deposited in estuaries, bays, and deltas. These excess nutrients can spawn massive blooms of algae that rob the water of oxygen, leaving areas where little or no marine life can exist. Solid wastes like bags, foam, and other items dumped into the oceans from land or by ships at sea are frequently consumed, with often fatal effects, by marine mammals, fish, and birds that mistake them for food. Discarded fishing nets drift for many years, ensnaring fish and mammals. In certain regions, ocean currents corral trillions of decomposing plastic items and other trash into gigantic, swirling garbage patches. One in the North Pacific, known as the Pacific Trash Vortex, is estimated to be the size of Texas. Pollution is not always physical. In large bodies of water, sound waves can carry undiminished for miles. The increased presence of loud or persistent sounds from ships, sonar devices, oil rigs, and even from natural sources like earthquakes can disrupt the migration, communication, and reproduction patterns of many marine animals, particularly aquatic mammals like whales and dolphins. (Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher) Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Marine pollution and its many forms B. Noise and its disruptive effects on marine life C. Various kinds of harmful pollutants D. The end of the "dilution" era Question 36. The word "negligible" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______. A. serious B. insignificant C. unpredictable D. positive Question 37. It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that the "dilution" policy is related to ______. A. dealing with the problems of water pollution B. helping the ecosystem of the oceans flourish C. neglecting the effects of dumping trash into the oceans D. treating harmful materials in the oceans properly Question 38. The word "they" in paragraph 4 refers to ______. A. ocean's depths B. man-made pollutants C. marine organisms D. the oceans Question 39. The word "spawn" in paragraph 5 can be best replaced by ______. A. appear B. prevent C. produce D. limit Question 40. According to the passage, nitrogen-rich fertilizers ______. A. are created by massive blooms of algae B. cause a shortage of oxygen in the ocean water C. do not relate to the disappearance of marine life D. cannot be found inland Question 41. Which of the following statements is NOT supported in the passage? A. Many pollutants deposited in the oceans finally become part of the global food chain. B. It is apparent that the oceans have been polluted for a long time. C. Industrial wastes and agricultural run-off are blamed for the degradation of the oceans. D. The oceans in the past were more contaminated than they are now. Question 42. Whales and dolphins are mentioned in the final paragraph as an example of marine creatures that ______. A. can communicate with each other via sound waves B. can survive earthquakes because of their large bodies C. suffer from loud or persistent sounds at sea D. are forced to migrate because of water pollution ĐỀ THI THPTQG 2017- MÃ ĐỀ 403 TOPIC: BOOKS Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Graphic novels, as the name suggests, are books written and illustrated in the style of a comic book. Adults may feel that graphic novels do not help children become good readers. They believe that this type of reading material somehow prevents "real" reading. (31) , many quality graphic novels are now being seen as a method of storytelling on the same level as novels, films or audiobooks. Many librarians and teachers are now accepting graphic novels as proper literature for children as they (32) young people and motivate them to read. This has been especially true with children who are not (33) to read, especially boys. Language learners are also motivated by graphic novels because the pictures provide clues to the meaning of the words. Therefore, they will (34) new vocabulary more quickly. Many teachers have reported great success when they used graphic novels with their students, especially in the areas of English, social studies and art. The idea that graphic novels are too simple to be regarded as serious reading is no longer valid. Reading them can, undoubtedly, help students develop the skills (35) are necessary to read more challenging works. (Source: Complete IELTS by Rawdon Wyatt) Question 31. Question 32. Question 33. Question 34. Question 35. A. Otherwise B. Therefore C. However D. In addition A. attract B. attractively C. attraction D. attractive A. active B. willing C. careful D. able A. learn B. take C. know D. accept A. where B. that C. who D. when TOPIC: CULTURAL DIVERSITY (WEDDING) Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Most weddings in Japan start with a religious ceremony in which usually only family members attend. Afterwards, a banquet is customarily held to which many people, including friends and colleagues, are invited. To celebrate the happy occasion, guests give the bride and groom goshuugi – gift money in special envelopes. Goshuugi from friends is usually 20,000 yen or 30,000 yen. A typical Japanese wedding party starts when the bride and groom enter the banquet hall together, and take their seats on a slightly raised platform facing their guests. Invited guests are seated closer to the bride and groom, with family and relatives seated further in back. The bride's and groom's bosses usually give congratulatory speeches then their friends sing in celebration. Other wedding highlights include a candle ceremony where the couple holds a candle while greeting their guests at each table, and the cutting of the wedding cake. Afterwards, the bride and groom thank their parents with a speech, then leave to end the party. In the past, dishes that supposedly brought good fortune, such as prawns and sea breams, were served in abundance. So much of the food was ordered that guests ended up taking the surplus home. Today, the majority of the weddings serve just enough for everyone. Additionally, before leaving, guests would traditionally receive souvenir gifts called hikidemono. Many wedding ceremonies take place at wedding halls or hotels. Rough estimates show that it costs about 3 million yen to host a wedding party for 80 guests. During Japan's economic bubble, overseas weddings and flamboyant receptions with special effects, such as smoke machines and having the bride and groom fly in on gondolas, were very popular. But these days, couples choose to tie the knot in various ways, from not having any ceremony to having a modest affair, or still going all out. (Source: http://www.hiraganatimes.com) Question 36. What is the main idea of this passage? A. Dishes served at Japan's wedding parties in the past B. Wedding ceremonies in Japan's economic bubble C. Popular wedding gifts in Japan D. Wedding ceremonies in Japan Question 37. According to the passage, goshuugi is . A. an important guest B. a happy occasion C. a type of food D. a kind of gift Question 38. The word "their" in paragraph 2 refers to . A. the couple's B. the parents' C. the relatives' D. the friends' Question 39. According to paragraph 2, which of the following do the bride and groom do at their wedding party? A. They deliver a speech to thank their parents. B. They sit on a platform at the back of the stage. C. They hold a candle and sing in celebration. D. They give a speech to thank their bosses. Question 40. The word "fortune" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _ . A. excitement B. luck C. money D. benefit Question 41. How were the wedding dishes in the past different from those of today? A. They were more delicious. B. They were less delicious. C. They were served in smaller amounts. D. They were served in larger Question 42. The phrase "tie the knot" in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by amounts. A. get engaged C. fasten the rope . B. get married D. loosen the tie TOPIC: ENVIRONMENT – GLOBAL WARMING Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. Humans are bringing about another global-scale change in the atmosphere: the increase in what are called greenhouse gases. Like glass in a greenhouse, these gases admit the Sun's light but tend to reflect back downward the heat that is radiated from the ground below, trapping heat in the Earth's atmosphere. This process is known as the greenhouse effect. Carbon dioxide is the most significant of these gases – there is 25 percent more carbon dioxide in the atmosphere today than there was a century ago, the result of our burning coal and fuels derived from oil. Methane, nitrous oxide, and CFCs are greenhouse gases as well. Scientists predict that increases in these gases in the atmosphere will make the Earth a warmer place. They expect a global rise in average temperature somewhere between 1.0 and 3.5 degrees Celsius in the next century. Average temperatures have in fact been rising and the years from 1987 to 1997 were the warmest years on record. Some scientists are reluctant to say that global warming has actually begun because climate naturally varies from year to year and decade to decade, and it takes many years of records to be sure of a fundamental change. There is little disagreement, though, that global warming is looming. Global warming will have different effects in different regions. A warmed world is expected to have more extreme weather, with more rain during wet periods, longer droughts, and more powerful storms. Although the effects of future climate changes are unknown, some predict that exaggerated weather conditions may translate into better agricultural yields in areas such as the western United States, where temperature and rainfall are expected to increase, while dramatic decreases in rainfall may lead to severe droughts and plunging agricultural yields in parts of Africa, for example. Warmer temperatures are expected to partially melt the polar ice caps, leading to a projected sea level rise of 50 centimeters by the year 2050. A sea level rise of this magnitude would flood coastal cities, force people to abandon low-lying islands, and completely inundate coastal wetlands. Diseases like malaria, which at present are primarily found in the tropics, may become more common in the regions of the globe between the tropics and the polar regions, called the temperate zones. For many of the world's plant species, and for animal species that are not easily able to shift their territories as their habitat grows warmer, climate change may bring extinction. (Source: Microsoft ® Encarta ® 2009. © 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation) Question 43. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage? A. Global Warming: Problems and Solutions B. Global Warming: Advantages and Disadvantages C. Global Warming: Future Reactions D. Global Warming: Possible Causes and Effects Question 44. According to paragraph 1, which of the following factors causes an increase in greenhouse gases? A. Glass in a greenhouse B. Humans C. Carbon dioxide D. Solar radiation Question 45. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to . A. scientists B. temperatures C. gases D. increases Question 46. The word "looming" in paragraph 2 probably means . A. fading B. showing C. ending D. appearing Question 47. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true? A. Few scientists agree that global warming is looming. B. Global climate naturally changes over time. C. Changes in climate are not easy to be documented. D. Some scientists are not sure that global warming has begun. Question 48. The word "plunging" in paragraph 3 probably means . A. improving B. increasing C. preventing D. decreasing Question 49. What may be the benefit of exaggerated weather conditions for the western United States? A. Minimal natural disasters B. Higher agricultural production C. Decrease in rainfall during wet periods D. Favourable weather conditions Question 50. Which of the following best describes the tone of the passage? A. Sarcastic B. Informative C. Ironic D. Argumentative ĐỀ THI THPTQG 2017- MÃ ĐỀ 404 TOPIC: WAYS OF SOCIALIZING Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27. Culture has a strong influence on non-verbal communication. Even the simple act of looking someone in the eye is not at all that simple. In the USA, Americans are (31)......to look directly at people when speaking to them. It shows interest in what they are saying and is thought to carry a (32)......of honesty. Meanwhile, in Japan and Korea, people avoid long periods of eye contact. It is considered more polite to look to the side during a conversation. The Lebanese, (33)........., stand close together and look intensely into each other's eyes. The action shows sincerity and gives people a better sense of what their counterparts want. Given such differences with even the most common expressions, people (34)......travel or work abroad have a real need to learn the other culture's body language. People tend to be unaware of the messages they are sending to others. So, it is (35)......to consider your own body language before dealing with people from other cultures. Knowing about the body language of friends, clients, and colleagues can be very helpful in improving understanding and avoiding miscommunication. (Source: Reading Fusion 1 by Andrew E. Bennett) Question 31: A. forbidden B. encouraged C. opposed D. assisted Question 32: A. taste B. sense C. sound D. touch Question 33: A. Therefore B. In addition C. In contrast D. Moreover Question 34: A. where B. which C. whose D. who Question 35: A. use B. usefulness C. useful D. usefully TOPIC: CULTURAL DIVERSITY Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 36 to 42. When naming a child, some parents seem to chose a name based simply on their personal preference. In other families, grandparents and professional name-makers come up with a child's name. In some cases, the time of a child's birth influences how the child's name is determined. In many European cultures, names are typically chosen by parents. Parents’ choice for their child's name may be based on names of their relatives or ancestors. For example, in Italy, children are traditionally named after their grandparents. The parents generally use the father's parents' names first. If they have more children, then they will use the mother's parents' name. Similarly, some people in Eastern name their children after relatives who have died. This tradition is seen as a means to protect the child from the Angel of Death. Traditionally, in some Asian countries, a child's grandfather or a fortune-teller chooses the child's name. In contrast to the tradition of naming children after relatives, the child's name is chosen to influence the child's character. For example, names may be based on a connection to certain elements such a fire, water, earth, wood, or metal. Or the name might include a written character meaning beauty, strength, or kindness. In certain African cultures, when a child is born plays a large part in determining the child's name. In Ghana's Akan culture, the day a child is born determines the child's name. But each day has different names for boys and girls. For instance, a boy born on Friday is named Kofi, whereas a girl born on the same day is named Afua which means "wanderer" or "explorer". Children with these names are seen as travelers. No matter where the name comes from, a child's name is the first gift in life. Whether the name is chosen according to preference or dictated by tradition, it reflects something about a child's culture. For that reason, all names should be treasured and respected. (Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen) Question 36: What is the main idea of the passage? A. The choice of name for a child in Asia B. The tradition of child naming in different cultures C. The history of child naming around the world D. The practice of child naming in Europe Question 37. According to the passage, in many Europe cultures, names are typically selected by...... A. parents B. relatives C. ancestors D. grandparents Question 38: The words "means" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to...... A. way B. sign C. symbol D. route Question 39: What is a common belief in some Asian countries concerning the tradition of naming a child? A. A child's name must include a written character meaning beauty, strength, or kindness. B. The choice of a child's name is believed to have an impact on his or her personality. C. A child's name shouldn't be connected with certain elements of nature. D. The choice of a child's name should be based on names of his or her relatives. Question 40: Which of the following about the tradition of child naming in African countries is NOT true according to the passage? A. Children born on Friday are normally given names meaning travelling. B. Children receive the same name if they are born on the same day. C. The arrival time of a child is an important factor in deciding his or her name. D. No matter how a child's name is chosen, it is related to his or her culture. Question 41: The word "it" in paragraph 5 refers to....... A. tradition B. culture C. name D. preference Question 42: The word "treasured" in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to....... A. valued B. ignored C. developed D. revealed TOPIC: NATURE IN DANGER Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 43 to 50. Tropical rainforests are being destroyed and badly degraded at an unsustainable rate. Some scientists estimate that in the early 1990s tropical forests were being destroyed at a rate of approximately 28 hectares a minute, or about 14 million hectares each year - an area about the size of the state of Winconsin. This figure marked a decrease since the 1980s, when approximately 16 hectares were destroyed each year, largely due to a reported decline of deforestation in the Amazon River Basin in the early 1990s. However, satellite images indicate that rates may have rebounded in the late 1990s as burning in the Amazon increased again. Over the past three decades alone, about 5 million square kilometers - or 20 percent of the world’s tropical forests - have been cleared. During this time, deforestation are inevitably followed by alarming rates of plant and animal extinction because many rainforests species cannot survive outside their pristine rainforest habitat. Some scientists estimate that dozens of rainforest species are becoming extinct every day. Causes of deforestation vary from location to location, but certain patterns tend to be consistent across all forests. Logging companies in search of valuable rainforest hardwoods, or, less often, oil companies in search of petroleum, are often the first to enter a remote area of rainforest. Some logged forests, if left alone, can regenerate in a few decades. But typically, they are not left alone the roads built by logging companies often provide access for landless farmers to enter a new area, as well as means to transport agricultural crops to market. For every 1 kilometer of new road built through a forested area, 4 to 24 square kilometers are deforested and colonized. Once the loggers leave the land, a typical cycle of destruction ensues. When the landless farmers arrive, they clear the land for planting. Poor rainforest soils produce a low crop yield, especially after a couple of years. At that point, the farmers often sell their lands to cattle ranchers or large plantation owners. After nutrients have been exhausted and soils compacted by cattle, lands are then abandoned and often laid to waste. Rainforest does not readily regenerate on these lands without human intervention. Meanwhile, the colonist farmers and cattle ranchers move to a new piece of land made accessible by logging roads, where the cycle of deforestation begins again. (Source: RAIN FOREST, Microsoft Encarta 2009. 1993-2008 Microsoft Corporation) Question 43: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The size of tropical rainforest loss B. Typical patterns of extinction of rainforest species C. Causes and effects of rainforest destruction D. The rate of rainforest destruction in the Amazon Question 44: According to paragraph 1, which of the following about the rate of rainforest destruction is TRUE? A. It was greater in the 1980s than in the early 1990s. B. It was the same in the early 1990s as in the 1980s. C. It kept increasing from the 1980s to the early 1990s. D. It was greater in the early 1990s than in the 1980s. Question 45: The word "rebounded" in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by....... A. gone up and down B. remained unchanged C. fallen again D. risen again Question 46: Which of the following can result from the loss of tropical rainforests? A. The disappearance of many rainforest species B. The decrease in wasted lands C. The increase in the rainforest habitat D. The disappearance of landless farmers Question 47: According to the passage, what is the most common cause of deforestation in different regions? A. The search for oil B. The search for rare animals C. The search for valuable woods D. The search for new farm lands Question 48: The word "regenerate" in paragraph 3 is closest meaning to...... A. recover B. repeat C. renew D. refine Question 49: The phrase "these lands" in paragraph 3 refers to....... A. lands for raising cattle B. lands sold and colonized C. lands abandoned and wasted D. lands for planting Question 50: What can be inferred about rainforests from the passage? A. Rainforest destruction can be reduced with the help of cattle ranchers. B. Most tropical rainforests have been sold to plantation owners. C. Human beings are the main contributor to deforestation in tropical regions. D. The cycle of rainforest destruction will come to an end. ĐỀ MINH HỌA 2018 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27. TOPIC: FRIENDSHIP Psychologists have long known that having a set of cherished companions is crucial to mental wellbeing. A recent study by Australian investigators concluded that our friends even help to (23) ______ our lives. The study concentrated (24) ______ the social environment, general health, and lifestyle of 1,477 persons older than 70 years. The participants were asked how much contact they had with friends, children, relatives and acquaintances. Researchers were surprised to learn that friendships increased life (25) ______ to a far greater extent than frequent contact with children and other relatives. This benefit held true even after these friends had moved away to another city and was independent of factors such as socioeconomic status, health, and way of life. According to scientists, the ability to have relationships with people to (26) ______ one is important has a positive effect on physical and mental health. Stress and tendency towards depression are reduced, and behaviors that are damaging to health, such as smoking and drinking, occur less frequently. (27) _______, our support networks, in times of calamity in particular, can raise our moods and feelings of self-worth and offer helpful strategies for dealing with difficult personal challenges. Question 23. A. prolong B. lengthen C. stretch D. expand Question 24. A. in B. with C. on D. at Question 25. A. expectation B. insurance C. expectancy D. assurance Question 26. A. who B. whom C. what D. that Question 27. A. Otherwise B. For example C. Moreover D. However TOPIC: BOOKS Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34. We get great pleasure from reading. The more advanced a man is, the greater delight he will find in reading. The ordinary man may think that subjects like philosophy or science are very difficult and that if philosophers and scientists read these subjects, it is not for pleasure. But this is not true. The mathematician finds the same pleasure in his mathematics as the school boy in an adventure story. For both, it is a play of the imagination, a mental recreation and exercise. The pleasure derived from this activity is common to all kinds of reading. But different types of books give us different types of pleasure. First in order of popularity is novel-reading. Novels contain pictures of imaginary people in imaginary situations, and give us an opportunity of escaping into a new world very much like our world and yet different from it. Here we seem to live a new life, and the experience of this new life gives us a thrill of pleasure. Next in order of popularity are travel books, biographies and memoirs. These tell us tales of places we have not seen and of great men in whom we are interested. Some of these books are as wonderful as novels, and they have an added value that they are true. Such books give us knowledge, and we also find immense pleasure in knowing details of lands we have not seen and of great men we have only heard of. Reading is one of the greatest enjoyments of life. To book-lovers, nothing is more fascinating than a favorite book. And, the ordinary educated man who is interested and absorbed in his daily occupation wants to occasionally escape from his drudgery into the wonderland of books for recreation and refreshment. Question 28. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Different types of books B. Different kinds of reading C. Reading as an exercise for the brain D. Reading as a pleasurable activity Question 29. According to paragraph 1, which of the following is NOT true? A. Ordinary people may think that philosophy and science are difficult. B. Reading about mathematics is mentally entertaining for a mathematician. C. Philosophers and scientists do not read for pleasure. D. A more advanced person takes greater pleasure in reading. Question 30. The word “derived” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______. A. differed B. established C. bought D. obtained Question 31. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to ______. A. a new life B. our world C. an opportunity D. a thrill of pleasure Question 32. The word “immense” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______. A. great B. limited C. personal D. controlled Question 33. According to the passage, travel books, biographies and memoirs ______. A. are wonderful novels B. tell stories of well-known places C. are less popular than novels D. are more valuable than novels Question 34. According to paragraph 4, which of the following is the most fascinating to booklovers? A. A daily occupation B. An ordinary educated man C. The wonderland D. A favorite book TOPIC: EDUCATION Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. The system of higher education had its origin in Europe in the Middle Ages, when the first universities were established. In modern times, the nature of higher education around the world, to some extent, has been determined by the models of influential countries such as France and Germany. Both France and Germany have systems of higher education that are basically administered by state agencies. Entrance requirements for students are also similar in both countries. In France, an examination called the baccalauréat is given at the end of secondary education. Higher education in France is free and open to all students who have passed this baccalauréat. Success in this examination allows students to continue their higher education for another three or four years until they have attained the first university degree called a licence in France. Basic differences, however, distinguish these two countries’ systems. French educational districts, called académies, are under the direction of a rector, an appointee of the national government who is also in charge of universities in each district. The uniformity in curriculum throughout the country leaves each university with little to distinguish itself. Hence, many students prefer to go to Paris, where there are better accommodations and more cultural amenities for them. Another difference is the existence in France of prestigious higher educational institutions known as grandes écoles, which provide advanced professional and technical training. Most of these schools are not affiliated with the universities, although they too recruit their students by giving competitive examinations to candidates. The grandes écoles provide rigorous training in all branches of applied science and technology, and their diplomas have a somewhat higher standing than the ordinary licence. In Germany, the regional universities have autonomy in determining their curriculum under the direction of rectors elected from within. Students in Germany change universities according to their interests and the strengths of each university. In fact, it is a custom for students to attend two, three, or even four different universities in the course of their undergraduate studies, and the majority of professors at a particular university may have taught in four or five others. This high degree of mobility means that schemes of study and examination are marked by a freedom and individuality unknown in France. France and Germany have greatly influenced higher education systems around the world. The French, either through colonial influence or the work of missionaries, introduced many aspects of their system in other countries. The German were the first to stress the importance of universities as research facilities, and they also created a sense of them as emblems of a national mind. Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The nature of education around the world in modern times B. Systems of higher education in France and Germany C. The origin of higher education system in Europe D. The influence of France and Germany on educational systems of other countries Question 36. The word “uniformity” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______. A. proximity B. discrepancy C. similarity D. uniqueness Question 37. The word “their” in paragraph 3 refers to ______. A. schools B. universities C. examinations D. branches Question 38. Which of the following about grandes écoles in France is NOT stated in paragraph 3? A. Most of them have no connection with universities. B. They have a reputation for advanced professional and technical training. C. Their degrees are better recognized than those provided by universities. D. They offer better accommodations and facilities than universities. Question 39. According to the passage, a regional university rector in Germany is elected by ______. A. the staff of the university B. the national government officials C. the regional government officials D. the staff of other universities Question 40. According to paragraph 4, what makes it possible for students in Germany to attend different universities during their undergraduate studies? A. The university staff have become far more mobile and occupied. B. The university’s training programs offer greater flexibility and freedom of choice. C. University tuition fees are kept at an affordable level for all students. D. Entry requirements to universities in Germany are made less demanding. Question 41. The word “emblems” in the final paragraph is closest in meaning to ______. A. representatives B. directions C. structures D. delegates Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Studying in France and Germany is a good choice for people of all ages and nationalities. B. It normally takes longer to complete a university course in France than in Germany. C. Universities in Germany can govern themselves more effectively than those in France. D. The level of decentralization of higher education is greater in Germany than in France. ĐỀ THI THPTQG 2018 MÃ ĐỀ 401 TOPIC: URBANIZATION Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in many cities worldwide. It has been noticed that the difference (31)......temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon occurs in both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open green spaces are replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain heat generated by the Sun and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms (32)......occur in the morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon. Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue (33)......it is not uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls of large buildings. In Singapore, the government has (34)......to transform it into a "city within a garden" and, in 2006, they held an international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One outcome was the creation of 18 "Supertrees" - metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding garden and is (35)......to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to collect rainwater, making them truly self-sufficient. (Adapted from by Pauline Cullen, Amanda French and Vanessa Jakeman) "The Official Cambridge Guide to IELTS" Question 31: A. on B with C. in D. out Question 32: A. when B. which C. what D. where Question 33: A. or B. for C. and D. but Question 34: A. pledged B. committed C. confessed D. required Question 35: A. home B. house C. land D. place TOPIC: FUTURE JOBS Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. A letter of application is a sales letter in which you are both salesperson and product, for the purpose of an application is to attract an employer's attention and persuade him or her to grant you an interview. To do this, the letter presents what you can offer the employer, rather than what you want from the job. Like a résumé, the letter of application is a sample of your work and an opportunity to demonstrate your skills and personality. If it is written with flair and understanding and prepared with professional care, it is likely to be very effective. While the résumé must be factual, objective, and brief, the letter is your chance to interpret and expand. It should state explicitly how your background relates to the specific job, and it should emphasize your strongest and most relevant characteristics. The letter should demonstrate that you know both yourself and the company. The letter of application must communicate your ambition and enthusiasm. Yet it must be modest. It should be neither aggressive nor compliant: neither pat yourself on the back nor ask for sympathy. It should never express dissatisfaction with the present or former job or employer. And you should avoid discussing your reasons for leaving your last job. Finally, it is best that you not broach the subject on salary. Indeed, even if a job advertisement requires that you mention your salary requirements, it is advisable simply to call them "negotiable." However, when you go on an interview, you should be prepared to mention a salary range. For this reason, you should investigate both your field and, if possible, the particular company. You don't want to ask for less than you deserve or more than is reasonable. (Adapted from by Linda Lee and Erik Gundersen) "Select Readings - Intermediate" Question 36: What is the passage mainly about? A. Advice on how to find a good job B. Things to avoid during a job interview C. Tips for writing an effective letter of application D. Differences between a résumé and a letter of application Question 37: According to paragraph 1, in a letter of application, the applicant tries to....... A. persuade the employer to grant him/her an interview B. get further information about the company C. advertise a product to attract more customers D. present what he/she wants from the job Question 38: The word "it" in paragraph 2 refers to....... A. the letter of application B. an opportunity C. your work D. the résumé Question 39: The word "explicitly" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to....... A. clearly B. shortly C. slightly D. quickly Question 40: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE about a letter of application? A. It should express the applicant's dissatisfaction with his/her former employer. B. It should refer to the applicant's reasons for leaving his/her previous job. C. It should be written very briefly, but in a formal style. D. It should expand upon the information contained in the applicant's résumé. Question 41: The word "broach" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to....... A. avoid B. investigate C. introduce D. understand Question 42: According to paragraph 4, in a job interview, the applicant should be ready to....... A. accept any salary offered B. negotiate working conditions C. mention their expected salary range D. talk about the company's budget TOPIC: EDUCATION Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. Henry is the undisputed star of Dronfield School near Sheffield. Whatever the achievements of other members of the comprehensive school, it is Henry, with his soulful eyes and glossy hair, who has hogged the limelight, appearing on television in Britain and abroad. Yet despite all the public adulation, Henry stirs up no envy or resentment among the 2000 students – in fact, they all adore him. The dog, who first arrived six months ago, is a super dog, who has improved students' behaviour and encouraged more students to focus on their academic achievement. It was Andrew's teacher, Wendy Brown and the school counsellor, Julie Smart, who first proposed buying a school dog. "Julie and I were talking one day about how looking after dogs can positively affect children's conduct," says Brown. "We did some research and discovered that the presence of pets has been shown to be therapeutic. A number of studies have shown that animals improve recovery after surgery or illness and have a calming influence on people in a lot of settings. Some of my kids can be a handful and some of the children Julie counsels have terrible problems." Could the school dog become a craze? Other schools such as the Mulberry Bush, a primary school for children with behavioural problems, have stepped forward to point out they already have one. Rosie Johnston, a Mulberry staff member has been bringing her golden retriever, Muskoka, into school for three years. Apart from being a calming influence, Muskoka even plays his part in literacy lessons. Children at the school can be too shy to read to adults so they read to Muskoka. "Their anxiety about mispronouncing something or getting the words in the wrong order is reduced when they read to him," says Johnston. Psychologist Dr Deborah Wells from Queen's University Belfast specializes in animal-human interaction. She believes that the underlying key to the Henry effect is that dogs offer unconditional love and that cheers up adults and children and helps with self-esteem. But traditionalist Chris Woodhead, the former chief inspector of schools says, "I don't see why a teacher cannot create a positive learning environment through the subject they teach and their personality. Dogs strike me as a bit of a publicity stunt. It's the kind of sentimental story journalists love." Despite this sentiment, Henry remains as popular as ever. Andrew Wainwright, a student at Dronfield School, says there is something magical and calming about being able to interact with Henry during his time at the school's catch-up classes, and that if he falls behind, that opportunity will be denied. Even doubting staff have finally been won round. Perhaps that is because Henry, who lies on the floor during staff meetings, has also had a calming effect on them. (Adapted from by Roy Norris and Amanda French with Miles Hordern) "Ready for Advanced" Question 43: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage? A. Having School Dogs: Pros and Cons B. Henry – a Super Dog in Dronfield School C. School Dogs: Useful Classroom Assistants D. Keeping School Dogs – a Prevalent Trend Question 44: The word "adulation" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to....... A. excessive admiration B. deserved attention C. considerable controversy D. unrealistic expectation Question 45: The phrase "a handful" in paragraph 3 is probably descriptive of a child who is....... A. difficult to control B. reluctant to explore C. inclined to disagree D. impossible to understand Question 46: Which of the following is mentioned in paragraph 3 as a potential impact of keeping a pet? A. A stronger tendency to misbehave B. Better recovery from illness C. A greater desire to influence others D. Long-term changes in conduct Question 47: The word "one" in paragraph 4 refers to........ A. a school dog B. a craze C. a Mulberry staff member D. a primary school Question 48: According to paragraph 4, which of the following is one of the roles played by Muskoka at the Mulberry Bush? A. Minimising the number of words mispronounced by its students B. Helping its students to reduce their fear of making mistakes C. Relieving its teaching staff of unnecessary workload D. Encouraging a more proactive approach to teaching literacy Question 49: Which of the following best summarises Chris Woodhead's viewpoint in paragraph 5? A. Teachers underestimate the role of dogs in literacy lessons. B. Schools have dogs just to attract media attention. C. Students and dogs are inseparable companions in the classroom setting. D. Dogs are capable of enlivening classroom atmosphere. Question 50: Which of the following is implied in the passage? A. Rosie Johnston is more experienced than Wendy Brown in working with animals. B. Interaction with Henry is used to boost students' learning motivation at Dronfield School. C. Administrators at Dronfield School are sceptical as to whether Henry's companion will benefit their students. D. Wendy Brown and Julie Smart are dedicated animal rights activists who wish to get their message across to young people. MÃ ĐỀ 402 TOPIC: VOLUNTEER Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27. The knock-on effect of volunteering on the lives of individuals can be profound. Voluntary work helps foster independence and imparts the ability to deal with different situations, often simultaneously, thus teaching people how to (23)______ their way through different systems. It therefore brings people into touch with the real world; and, hence, equips them for the future. Initially, young adults in their late teens might not seem to have the expertise or knowledge to impart to others that say a teacher or an agriculturalist or a nurse would have, (24)______ they do have many skills that can help others. And in the absence of any particular talent, their energy and enthusiasm can be harnessed for the benefit (25)______ their fellow human beings, and ultimately themselves. From all this, the gain to any community no matter how many volunteers are involved is (26)______. Employers will generally look favorably on people (27)______ have shown an ability to work as part of a team. It demonstrates a willingness to learn and an independent spirit, which would be desirable qualities in any employee. Question 23: A. take Question 24: A. but Question 25: A. under Question 26: A. impassable Question 27: A. which (Adapted from "IELTS Testbuilder 2" by Sam McCarter) B. work C. put D. give B. so C. or D. for B. of C. on D. out B. unattainable C. undetectable D. immeasurable B. what C. whose D. who TOPIC: CULTURAL DIVERSITY Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34. There are many African tribes but, for many people, the Masai are the most well-known. They are famous for their bright red clothing and their ceremonies with lots of music and dancing. Probably, one of the most colorful ceremonies is the festival of "Eunoto," when the teenage boys of the Masai become men. Eunoto lasts for many days and Masai people travel across the region to get to a special place near the border between Kenya and Tanzania. The teenage boys who travel with them are called "warriors." This is a traditional name from the past when young men fought with other tribes. At the beginning of the ceremony, the teenagers paint their bodies while their mothers start to build a place called the "Osingira," a sacred room in the middle of the celebrations. Later, the senior elders from different tribes will sit inside this place and, at different times, the boys go inside to meet them. Later in the day, the boys run around the Osingira, going faster and faster each time. The teenagers also have to alter their appearance at Eunoto. Masai boys' hair is very long before the ritual but they have to cut it off. In Masai culture, hair is an important symbol. For example, when a baby grows into an infant, the mother cuts the child's hair and gives the child a name. At a Masai wedding, the hair of the bride is also cut off as she becomes a woman. And so, at Eunoto, the teenage boy's mother cuts his hair off at sunrise. On the final day, the teenagers meet the senior elders one more time. They get this advice: "Now you are men, use your heads and knowledge." Then, people start to travel back to their homes and lands. The teenagers are no longer warriors. They are adult men and now they will get married and have children. Later in life, they will be the leaders of their communities. (Adapted from "Life" by John Hughes, Helen Stephenson and Paul Dummett) Question 28: What is the passage mainly about? A. The ceremony that marks the beginning of Masai boys' adulthood B. The journey by Masai teenage boys to the festival of Eunoto C. The importance of Eunoto in African people's lives D. The reasons for the Masai's popularity over other African tribes Question 29: The word "warriors" in paragraph 2 mostly means ______. A. dancers B. fighters C. musicians Question 30: The word "them" in paragraph 3 refers to ______. A. different tribes B. their mothers C. the boys D. travellers D. the senior elders Question 31: According to paragraph 3, the Osingira is built by ______. A. the Masai senior elders C. the Masai teenage boys' mothers B. Masai teenagers D. Masai men Question 32: The word "alter" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______. A. differ B. change C. maintain D. distinguish Question 33: According to the passage, what do the teenage boys do at Eunoto? A. Painting their bodies B. Receiving new names C. Changing their clothes D. Fighting with other tribes Question 34: According to the passage, which of the following is TRUE? A. The Masai teenage boys are given advice from senior elders before attending Eunoto. B. The Masai teenage boys will become adults and get married after attending Eunoto. C. Eunoto lasts for a day across the region between Kenya and Tanzania. D. Eunoto is the ceremony for both Masai teenage boys and girls. TOPIC: INVENTIONS Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. In this modern world where closed-circuit television (CCTV) cameras are everywhere and smartphones in every pocket, the routine filming of everyday life is becoming pervasive. A number of countries are rolling out body cams for police officers; other public-facing agencies such as schools, councils and hospitals are also experimenting with cameras for their employees. Private citizens are getting in on the act too: cyclists increasingly wear headcams as a deterrent to aggressive drivers. As camera technology gets smaller and cheaper, it isn't hard to envisage a future where we're all filming everything all the time, in every direction. Would that be a good thing? There are some obvious potential upsides. If people know they are on camera, especially when at work or using public services, they are surely less likely to misbehave. The available evidence suggests that it discourages behaviours such as vandalism. Another upside is that it would be harder to get away with crimes or to evade blame for accidents. But a world on camera could have subtle negative effects. The deluge of data we pour into the hands of Google, Facebook and others has already proved a mixed blessing. Those companies would no doubt be willing to upload and curate our body-cam data for free, but at what cost to privacy and freedom of choice? Body-cam data could also create a legal minefield. Disputes over the veracity and interpretation of police footage have already surfaced. Eventually, events not caught on camera could be treated as if they didn't happen. Alternatively, footage could be faked or doctored to dodge blame or incriminate others. Of course, there's always the argument that if you're not doing anything wrong, you have nothing to fear. But most people have done something embarrassing, or even illegal, that they regret and would prefer they hadn't been caught on film. People already censor their social media feeds – or avoid doing anything incriminating in public – for fear of damaging their reputation. Would ubiquitous body cams have a further chilling effect on our freedom? The always-on-camera world could even threaten some of the attributes that make us human. We are natural gossips and backbiters, and while those might not be desirable behaviours, they oil the wheels of our social interactions. Once people assume they are being filmed, they are likely to clam up. The argument in relation to body-cam ownership is a bit like that for guns: once you go past a critical threshold, almost everyone will feel they need one as an insurance policy. We are nowhere near that point yet – but we should think hard about whether we really want to say "lights, body cam, action." (Adapted from https://www.newscientist.com) Question 35: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The current public obsession with modern technology B. The ubiquity of cameras and ensuing problems C. Legal disputes fuelled by body-cam data D. Data overload experienced by social network users Question 36: The word "envisage" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______. A. embrace B. fantasise C. reject D. visualise Question 37: As mentioned in paragraph 2, misbehaviour can be discouraged if potential offenders ______. A. are aware of being filmed at the time B. know that they may be subjected to criticism C. realise that they may be publicly punished D. are employed in the public sector Question 38: The phrase "a mixed blessing" in paragraph 3 probably means ______. A. something that is neither good nor bad B. something that produces unexpected results C. something that has both advantages and disadvantages D. something either negative or positive in nature Question 39: What does the author imply in paragraph 3? A. Body-cam ownership could eventually give rise to information overload, which, in turn, raises public concern. B. Social networks provide their users with greater freedom of choice while depriving them of their privacy and anonymity. C. Companies like Facebook may have their own intentions behind their willingness to take care of their users' body-cam data. D. Google and similar enterprises tend to refrain from harvesting their customers' data for illicit purposes. Question 40: It is stated in paragraph 4 that unrecorded events ______. A. may go unnoticed or be ignored completely B. could be manipulated to charge innocent people C. should be kept open to interpretation D. could provoke legal disputes among media companies Question 41: According to paragraph 5, why do social media users already act more carefully online? A. Because they regret doing something illegal. B. Because they disapprove of uncensored social media feeds. C. Because they want to avoid being recognised in public. D. Because they wish to protect their image. Question 42: The word "they" in paragraph 6 refers to ______. A. wheels B. social interactions C. desirable behaviours D. people MÃ ĐỀ 403 TOPIC: SPORTS Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27. When hosting an Olympic Games, a country has to take account of several considerations, among which the financial one is by far the most important. The costs of hosting the Olympics can (23) ______ tens of billions of dollars, and it is commonplace for budgets to double or even triple. In addition to direct costs of hosting the Games (the opening and closing ceremonies, athletes’ village, security, etc.), cities often must build expensive new venues (24) ______ lesser-known sports. Once constructed, sports venues often incur additional maintenance costs long after the Games have ended. While costs are the (25) ______ concern for a host city, there are other factors to consider. For one, an Olympic host city may receive substantial revenue from ticket sales, tourist spending, corporate sponsorship, and television rights. Cities such as Los Angeles (1984) and Seoul (1988) actually made a large profit from the Games they hosted. (26) ______, hosting the Olympic Games confers prestige on a host city and country, which can lead to increased trade and tourism. The Olympics are also an opportunity to invest in projects (27) ______ improve the city’s quality of life, such as new transportation systems. (Adapted from “Skillful Reading & Writing 4” by Mike Boyle and Lindsay Warwick) Question 23: A. outnumber B. exceed C. overcharge D. surmount Question 24: A. on B. at C. in D. for Question 25: A. instrumental B. primary C. influential D. supplementary Question 26: A. In addition B. Otherwise C. For example D. However Question 27: A. which B. who C. what D. whom TOPIC: WAYS OF SOCIALIZING Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34. Another form of body language that is used differently, depending on the culture, is distance. In North America people don’t generally stand as close to each other as in South America. Two North Body language is a vital form of communication. In fact, it is believed that the various forms of body language contribute about 70 percent to our comprehension. It is important to note, however, that body language varies in different cultures. Take for example, eye movement. In the USA a child is expected to look directly at a parent or teacher who is scolding him/her. In other cultures the opposite is true. Looking directly at a teacher or parent in such a situation is considered a sign of disrespect. Americans who don’t know each other well will keep a distance of four feet between them, whereas South Americans in the same situation will stand two to three feet apart. North Americans will stand closer than two feet apart only if they are having a confidential conversation or if there is intimacy between them. Gestures are often used to communicate. We point a finger, raise an eyebrow, wave an arm or move any other part of the body - to show what we want to say. However, this does not mean that people all over the world use the same gestures to express the same meanings. Very often we find that the same gestures can communicate different meanings, depending on the country. An example of a gesture that could be misinterpreted is sticking out the tongue. In many cultures it is a sign of making a mistake, but in some places it communicates ridicule. The dangers of misunderstanding one another are great. Obviously, it is not enough to learn the language of another culture. You must also learn its non-verbal signals if you want to communicate successfully. (Adapted from “Reading Academic English” by Judy Rapoport, Ronit Broder and Sarah Feingold) Question 28: What is the passage mainly about? A. The significance of non-verbal signals in America B. Misunderstandings in communication C. Interpretations of gestures in different cultures D. Non-verbal communication across cultures Question 29: According to paragraph 1, when scolded by his/her parent or teacher, an American child is expected to _________. A. stand close to the person B. look directly at the person C. raise his/her eyebrows D. point a finger at the person Question 30: The word “intimacy” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________. A. enjoyment B. closeness C. strength D. agreement Question 31: The word “misinterpreted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _________. A. misbehaved B. misunderstood C. mispronounced D. misspelled Question 32: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to _________. A. an example B. making a mistake C. the country D. sticking out the tongue. Question 33: As stated in the passage, in order to communicate successfully with people from another culture, it is advisable for a person _________. A. to learn only non-verbal signals of that culture B. to travel to as many countries as possible C. to use the body language of the people from that culture D. to learn both the language and non-verbal signals of that culture Question 34: Which form of body language is NOT mentioned in the passage? A. posture B. gesture C. distance D. eye movement TOPIC: THE GREEN MOVEMENT Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. The green building movement, started in the 1970s as a way to reduce environmental destruction, is changing the way buildings are constructed. In the early years, green builders were a small minority, and their goals of reducing the environmental impact of buildings were considered unrealistic. Now, however, the movement is growing, as builders have been able to take advantage of new technology. Green builders try to make use of recycled materials, which means less waste in dumps. Also, they reduce environmental impact by reducing the energy requirements of a building. One way is to provide an alternative, non-polluting source of energy. First, with solar panels, it is possible to produce electricity from the rays of the sun. Once installed, they provide energy at no cost and with no pollution. Another solution is to reduce the amount of energy required in a building. It is possible to cut electricity use noticeably by improving natural lighting and installing low-energy light bulbs. To reduce the amount of fuel needed for heating or cooling, builders also add insulation to the walls so that the building stays warmer in winter and cooler in summer. One example of this advanced design is the Genzyme Center of Cambridge, the most environmentally responsible office building in America. Every aspect of the design and building had to consider two things: the need for a safe and pleasant workplace for employees and the need to lesson the negative environmental impact. 75 percent of the building materials were recycled materials, and the energy use has been reduced by 43 percent and water use by 32 percent, compared with other buildings of the same size. It other parts of the world, several large-scale projects have recently been developed according to green building principles. One of these is in Vauban, Germany, in an area that was once the site of army housing. The site has been completely rebuilt with houses requiring 30 percent less energy than conventional ones. These houses, heated by special non-polluting systems, are also equipped with solar panels. A larger projects is under way in China. The first phase of this project will include houses for 400 families built with solar power, non-polluting bricks, and recycled wall insulation. In a second phase, entire neighborhoods in six cities will be built. If all goes well, the Chinese government plans to copy these ideas in new neighborhoods across China. Green building ideas, on a small or large scale are spreading. Individuals, companies, and governments are beginning to see their benefits. Not only are they environmentally friendly, green buildings improve living and working conditions and also save money in the long run. (Adapted from “Advanced Reading Power” by Beatrice S. Mikulecky and Linda Jeffries) Question 35: Which of the following does the passage mainly discuss? A. Economic benefits of environmentally responsible buildings B. Successfully green building projects all over the world C. New technologies applied to constructing office buildings D. An environmentally friendly approach to constructing buildings Question 36: According to paragraph 1, the environmental goals set by green builders were initially considered unrealistic presumably because _________. A. there was a lack of green builders at the beginning of the 20th century B. the potential applications of technology to constructing green buildings were not recognised then C. the problems of environment destruction were not prevalent at the time D. there was an abundance of natural materials for the construction of conventional buildings Question 37: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ________. A. rays of the sun B. recycled materials C. green builders D. solar panels Question 38: The word “insulation” in paragraph 3 mostly means _________. A. systems that protect buildings from the sun’s rays B. devices that monitor changes in temperature C. panels that convert solar energy into electricity D. materials that prevent heat loss and absorption Question 39: What is one common characteristic shared by the Genzyme Center of Cambridge and the project in Vauban, Germany? A. Both were built based on green building principles, which reduces energy use considerably B. Both took advantage of new insulation technology, which cuts down on construction costs C. Both were built out of entirely recycled materials instead of conventional ones D. Both are housing complexes with special, non-polluting heating system Question 40: The phrase “under way” in paragraph 6 mostly means _________. A. being notified B. being certified C. being inspected D. being launched Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 7 as a merit of green buildings? A. Improving living conditions B. Proving more economical eventually C. Being friendly to the environment D. Increasing work productivity Question 42: According to the passage, which of the following statements about green buildings is TRUE? A. They are gaining in popularity in different parts of the world B. They are more economical and produce no pollution C. They have only been built in technologically developed countries D. They are environmentally responsible constructions with gardens MÃ ĐỀ 404 TOPIC: LIFELONG LEARNING Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35. Taking piano lessons and solving math puzzles on a computer significantly improve specific math skills of elementary schoolchildren, according to a new study. The results, (31)______ were published in the journal Neurological Research, are the latest in a series that links musical training to the development of higher brain functions. Researchers worked with 135 second-grade students at a school in Los Angeles after (32)______ a pilot study with 102 students. Children that were given four months of piano training as well as time playing (33)______ newly designed computer software scored 27 percent higher on math and fraction tests than other children. Piano instruction is thought to enhance the brain's "hard wiring" for spatial-temporal reasoning, or the ability to visualise and transform objects in space and time, says Professor Gordon Shaw, who led the study. At the same time, the computer game allows children to solve geometric and math puzzles that boost their ability to (34)______ shapes in their mind. The findings are significant (35)______ a grasp of proportional math and fractions is a prerequisite to math at higher levels, and children who do not master these areas of math cannot understand more advanced math that is critical to high-tech fields. Question 31: A. whose Question 32: A. conducting Question 33: A. for Question 34: A. manipulate Question 35: A. before B. which B. carrying B. of B. accumulate B. because (Adapted from "Eye on Editing 2" by Joyce S. Cain) C. that D. who C. composing D. concerning C. at D. with C. stimulate D. accommodate C. although D. unless TOPIC: RELATIONSHIP Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. When we meet people for the first time, we often make decisions about them based entirely on how they look. And of course, we too are being judged on our appearance. Undoubtedly, it's what's inside that's important but sometimes we can send out the wrong signals and so get a negative reaction, simply by wearing inappropriate clothing. When selecting your clothes each day, it is therefore important to think about who you're likely to meet, where you are going to be spending most of your time and what tasks you are likely to perform. Clearly, on a practical level, some outfits will be more appropriate to different sorts of activity and this will dictate your choice to an extent. However, there's no need to abandon your individual taste completely. After all, if you dress to please somebody else's idea of what looks good, you may end up feeling uncomfortable and not quite yourself. Some colours bring your natural colouring to life and others can give you a washed-out appearance. Try out new ones by all means, but remember that dressing in bright colours when you really like subtle neutral tones or vice versa will make you feel self-conscious and uncomfortable. You know deep down where your own taste boundaries lie. It may be fun to cross these sometimes, but do take care not to go too far all at once. Reappraising your image isn't selfish because everyone who comes into contact with you will benefit. You'll look better and you'll feel a better person all round. And if in doubt, you only need to read Professor Albert Mehrabian's book Silent Messages, which showed that the impact we make on each other depends 55 percent on how we look and behave, 38 percent on how we speak, and only seven percent on what we actually say. (Adapted from "Expert First" by Jan Bell and Roger Gower) Question 36: Which could be the best title for the passage? A. Making Your Image Work for You B. Choosing Appropriate Business Suits C. Making Judgements about People's Appearance D. Creating a Professional Image Question 37: According to paragraph 1, people can get a negative reaction from others by ______. A. wearing inappropriate clothes B. expressing too strong emotions C. sending out right signals D. talking about other people's behaviours Question 38: The word "outfits" in paragraph 2 mostly means ______. A. types of gestures B. sets of equipment C. sets of clothes D. types of signals Question 39: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a factor to be considered when choosing clothes? A. Places you spend time in B. Kinds of tasks you perform C. Other people's views on beauty D. People you meet Question 40: The word "others" in paragraph 3 refers to ______. A. taste boundaries B. colours C. means D. neutral tones Question 41: The word "Reappraising" in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ______. A. reconsidering B. reapplying C. reminding D. recalling Question 42: According to Professor Albert Mehrabian, the impact we make on each other depends mainly on ______. A. how we look and behave B. what we read C. what we actually say D. how we speak ĐỀ THI THPTQG 2019 MÃ ĐỀ 407 TOPIC: NEW WAYS TO LEARN Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29. Becoming an independent language learner In an educational context, the term ‘learner independence’ has gained increasing importance is recent years. It is of particular (25) _______ to language learning and commonly refers to the way students confidently control and organic their own language learning process. While some people seem to have an almost (26) _______ flair for language, others have to rely on strategies to maximise their skills and learn a foreign language more effectively. The main thing to remember is that becoming a truly independent learner ultimately depends above all on taking responsibility for you own learning and being prepared to take every opportunity available to you to learn. You also increase your chances of (27) _______ by learning according to your own needs and interests, using all available resources. Research shows that learners (28) _______ adopt this approach will undoubtedly manage to broaden their language abilities considerably and, (29) _______, are more likely to achieve their objectives in the longer term. Question 1: A. resemblance B. relevance C. acquaintance D. acceptance Question 2: A. instinctive B. spiritual C. perceptive D. habitual Question 3: A. success B. succeed C. successful D. successfully Question 4: A. who B. why C. where D. which 36 Question 5: A. because B. in contrast C. though D. as a result TOPIC: TOURISM Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34. Tribal tourism is a relatively new type of tourism. It involves travellers going to remote destinations, staying with local people and learning about their culture and way of life. They stay in local accommodation, share facilities with local people, and join in with meals and celebrations. At the moment, less than one percent of holidays are tribal tourism holidays, but this is set to change. Tribal tourism is often compared with foreign exchange visits. However, a foreign exchange involves staying with people who often share the same values. Tribal tourism takes visitors to places where the lifestyle is very different from that in their home location. Those who have been on a tribal holiday explain that experiencing this lifestyle is the main attraction. They say that it offers them the chance to live in a way they never have before. Not everyone is convinced that tribal tourism is a good thing, and opinions are divided. The argument is about whether or not it helps the local population, or whether it exploits them. The main problem is that, because tribal tourism is relatively new, the long-term influences on local populations have not been studied in much detail. Where studies have been carried out, the effects have been found to be negative. So, it is possible to experience an exotic culture without harming it in someway? “With a bit of thought, we can maximise the positive influences and minimise the negative,” says travel company director Hilary Waterhouse. “The most important thing for a tribal tourist is to show respect for, learn about, and be aware of, local customs and traditions. Always remember you’re a guest.” (Adapted from “Complete IELTS” by Rawdon Wyall) Question 30: Which best serves as the tittle for the passage? A. Different Customs of a Tribe B. Peak Holiday Seasons C. Holidays with a Difference D. An Old Tourist Destination Question 31: The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to _______. A.local people B. travellers C. remote destinations D. facilities Question 32: According to paragraph 2, what is the main attraction of tribal tourism? A. Tourists can interact with other foreign visitors. B. Tourists can experience a different lifestyle. C. Tourists can stay with people of the same values. D. Tourists can explore beauty spots in remote areas. Question 33: The word “divided” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________. A. interesting B. important C. similar D. different Question 34: According to Hilary Waterhouse, the most important thing for a tribal tourist is to ________. A. be accompanied by other travellers B. forget about negative experiences C. respect local customs and traditions D. learn about other guests TOPIC: CONSERVATION Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. E-waste is being produced on a scale never seen before. Computers and other electronic equipment become obsolete in just a few years, leaving customers with little choice but to buy newer ones to keep up. Millions of tons of computers, TVs, smartphones, and other equipment are discarded each year. In most countries, 37 all this waste ends up in landfills, where it poisons the environment – e-waste contains many toxic substances such as lead, mercury, and arsenic that leak into the ground. Recycling is the ideal solution to the problem. E-waste contains significant amounts of valuable metals like gold and silver that make it attractive to recycle. In theory, recycling gold from old computers is more efficient – and less environmentally destructive – than digging it from the earth. the problem is that a large percentage of e-waste dropped off for recycling in wealthy countries is sold and diverted to the developing world, posing an increasing threat to the health of the people there. To address the problem of the international trade in e-waste, 170 nations signed the 1989 Basel Convention, an agreement requiring that developed nations notify developing nations of hazardous waste shipments coming into their countries. Then, in 1995 the Basel Convention was modified to ban hazardous waste shipments to poor countries completely. Although the ban hasn’t taken effect, the European Union, where recycling infrastructure is well developed, has nearly written it into their laws. One law holds manufacturers responsible for the safe disposal of electronics they produce. Companies like Creative Recycling Systems in Florida, the USA, are hoping to profit from clean e-waste recycling. The key to their business is a huge, building-size machine able to separate electronic products into their component materials. As the machine’ steel teeth break up e – waste, all the toxic dust is removed from the process. This machine can handle some 70,000 tons of electronics a year. Although this is only a fraction of the total, it wouldn’t take many more machines like this to process the entire USA’s output of high-tech trash. Unfortunately, under current policies, domestic processing of e-waste is not compulsory, and while shipping waste abroad is ethically questionable, it is still more profitable than processing it safely in the USA. Creative Recycling Systems is hoping that the US government will soon create laws deterring people from sending e-waste oevrseas. (Adapted from “Reading Explorer 4” by Paul MacIntyre and Nancy Hubley) Question 35: Which best serves as the title for the passage? A.Waste Recycling: A Storm in a Teacup B. Domestic Recycling: Pros and Cons C. E-waste – An Export Commodity of the Future D. E-waste – A Mess to Clear up Question 36: The word “obsolete” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______. A. broken B. outdated C. incomplete D. inaccurate Question 37: As stated in paragraph 2, a large percentage of e-waste meant for recycling in the developed countries _________. A. is enventually sent to developing nations B. is later recycled in local factories C. contains all valuable metals except gold D. is buried deep in the soil at landfills Question 38: The word “notify” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______. A. assure B. inform C. excuse D. notice Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to ________. A. recycling infrastructure B. the Basel Convention C. the ban D. the european Union Question 40: According to the European Union’s laws, electronic manufacturers are required to ______. A. upgrade their recycling infrastructure regularly B. sell their e-waste to developed nations only C. take responsibiblity for disposing of their products safely D. sign the Basel Convention Question 41: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage? A. Shipping e-waste abroad yields greater profit than recycling it safely in the USA. B. The USA’ total e-waste output amounts to 70,000 tons per year. 38 C. Creative Recycling Systems has made a fortune from their recycling machine. D. The Basel Convention originally banned the import if high-tech trash into European countries. Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Legislative action is fundamental to solving the problem of e-waste effectively. B. Developing nations benefit more from the trade in e-waste than their developed counterparts. C. Strict laws against sending e-waste abroad have recently been upheld in Florida. D. Most countries have made enormous efforts to manage their e-waste exports. MÃ ĐỀ 419 TOPIC: NEW WAYS TO LEARN Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37 . The cyberspace learning initiative Advances in technology have generated revolutionary applications that could change the face of education as we know it today. Online learning, also known as electronic learning , may (33)____ the future of education thanks to recent developments in the Internet and multimedia technologies. It is anticipated that cyberspace institutions or online universities will replace traditional educational (34)____. Virtual classrooms will be multi-functional, acting simultaneously as learning platforms, forums and (35)______ networks. They will be geared towards promoting the acquisition of knowledge as a life-long endeavor, (36)_____ occurs through global collaboration. Cyberspace institutions can go a long way towards achieving this as they are able to liberate us from the limitations of time and space. Flexibility of time and location make e-learning a highly accessible, international resource. (37)________, prospective students will, regardless of age, background or origin, have unlimited access to both formal and informal learning opportunities. The pursuit of knowledge will consequently become an end in itself and not a means to an end. ( Adapted from “Traveller Advanced” by H.Q. Mitchell) Question 33: A. plan B. shape C. view D. see Question 34: A. B. establishments C. provisions D.backgrounds Question 35: A. society B. social C. socially D. socialize Question 36: A. which B. where C. when D. who Question 37: A. Because B. Although C. Therefore specifications 39 D. However TOPIC: TOURISM Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 30 to 34. Dubai is the second largest of the emirates which make up the United Arab Emirates. In the 1950s it was a tiny coastal village. Now it is a huge modern city with a population of over 700000. It offers an excellent modern lifestyle and is known around the world as a top tourist destination. Dubai has something for everyone. Holidaymakers can enjoy a relaxing break, and people looking for adventure can find something new and exciting. The excellent hotels and facilities make it a popular place for business conferences and exhibitions. Dubai offers many unusual holiday experiences. Visitors can go on a desert safari or drive in the sand dunes in a for-wheel drive, watch camel racing or learn how to hunt with falcons. They can also try sand skiing. More relaxing is a cruise in a wooden dhow in the Gulf or a visit to the old city markets. There are many opportunities to take photographs. The traditional architecture is amazing, and there are many magnificent palaces and mosques. Visitors can visit a Bedouin village and see camels and herds of goats. There are beautiful desert oases and the best senses in the world. It is said that Dubai is the shopper’s paradise. Many people come to Dubai for the shopping. Visitors enjoy everything from modern malls to traditional markets. Low customs duties mean that many products are less expensive than products bought in other countries. While Dubai’s official language is Arabic, many shopkeepers speak English. Bur Juman Centre and Al Ghurair Centre are places that every shopper should try. (adapted from “IELTS Target 5.0” by Chris Gough) Question 38: Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. Dubai: Things to do for everyone B. Dubai: An Ancient City in the Desert C. Dubai: Things to Avoid D. Dubai: Present and Future. Question 39: The word “ offers” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_____________ A. receives B. exchanges C. attends D. provides Question 40: According to paragraph 2, why is Dubai a popular place for business conferences and exhibitions? A. Because it has world-famous artists. B. Because it provides new business opportunities. C. Because it has excellent hotels and facilities. 40 D. Because it offers new and exciting holidays. Question 41: The word “They” in paragraph 3 refers to A. visitors B. falcons C. sand dunes D. holiday experiences. Question 42: According to the paragraph 5, what is NOT true about shopping in Dubai? A. Visitors can shop in both modern malls and traditional markets. B. Many products are cheaper than in other countries. C. Most shopkeeprs can’t speak English D. Bur Juman and Al Ghurair are popular shopping centres. TOPIC: MASS MEDIA Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42. For over 300 years since its appearance in Britain in 1621, newspaper was written and read by only a tiny minority. In 1869, a new newspaper was produced in large numbers and at such low prices that ordinary people could buy it on every street corner, and it was an instant success. The Daily Mail, which is still running today, was the mother of the modern tabloid, and the beginning of a whole new subculture in the British press. Today more than twice as many tabloids are sold than the so-called “ quality press” titles such as The Times of The Guarduab. Originally, the word tabloid referred to the size and format. But today, for most people, the word tabloid has nothing to do with shape and size. What makes a tabloid a tabloid is content. And above all, style. Tabloids follow a special formula: they report the news but only certain kinds. Tabloids dedicate most of their pages to stories about celebrities. This involves photographing them in embarrassing situations, gossiping about their private lives and generally making them look a bit silly. However, the tabloids are not simply an irritation for celebrities; They are also a vehicle for self-promotion. Though they have millions of devoted reader, tabloids are also widely criticized in Britain. They are accused of being sensationalist, in bad taste, and of having no ethical standards in their reporting and “ researching” methods. They may tap celebrities ‘ phones or even break into their house just to get a story. When criticized, the tabloids state that the public has a right to know about everything, but celebrities have no rights to privacy at all. So why does Britain, which has access to the best press agencies and the highest journalistic standards, consume tabloids like chocolate? Maybe the reason is that we have enough news on the television, the radio and in the quality newspapers. Tabloids are not actually about news at all; tabloids are just about gossip. And when it comes to gossip, what matters is not what is true or what is kind, but what is entertaining and what is funny. The more 41 in bad taste a story is, the funnier it seems. And bad taste is what the British tabloids have made into an art. (Adapted from “ Oxford Exam Excellence” by Danuta Gryca et al.) Question 43: Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. Tabloids versus Broadsheets: An Ongoing War B. Tabloids: Too Kind to Be True C. The Art of Bad Taste: The British Tabloid. D. The Guardian: Feeding Bad Taste for Gossip. Question 44: The word “formula” in paragraph 2 is closest meaning to _________ A. sequence B. design C. readership D. method Question 45: The phrase “ a vehicle” in paragraph 2 mostly means_____________ A. a way of achieving something B. a method of researching something. C. a set of instructions on how to do something D. a means of transporting something. Question 46: The word “ They” in paragraph 3 refers to___________ A. people B. houses C. tabloids D. readers Question 47: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 3 as an accusation against tabloids? A. They bud celebrities phone conversations. B. they feature sensational news stories. C. They gain entry into celebrities house illegally. D. they violate the public’s rights to privacy. Question 48: According to paragraph 4, what explains the popularity of tabloids in Britain? A. They provide thorough accounts current issues. B. They are deemed to be more aesthetic than “ quality press”. C. They are governed my the highest journaliststic standards. D. They contain light-hearted stories that entertain readers. Question 49: According to the passage, tabloids in Britain___________. A. are considered a mixed blessing for celebrities B. are outsold by such ‘quality press’ titles as the Times. C. vary in shape, size and format. D. have the same sales figures as chocolate Question 50: Which of the following is LEAST likely to be found in a modern tabloid? A. Future changes in European economies B. An Oscar winner accused of tax evasion 42 C. Miss Universe lying about her A level results D. A Premier League footballer failing his dope test MÃ ĐỀ 424 TOPIC: ENTERTAINMENT Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37. Nowadays, television occupies a large portion of children’s time. From when they start in preschool, children spend more time watching television than participating in any other (33) _______ except sleeping. (34) _________, this is not necessarily a bad thing. The results of some research suggest that there is considerable overlap between the comprehension processes activated while reading and the processes (35) _______ take place during a period of television viewing. If this is so, it may very well be the case that children who learn comprehension skills from television viewing before they are ready to read are (36) _______ with some very important tools when they later learn to read. It has been noted that children are frequently better at recalling televised stories they have watched compared to those they have simply heard. Due to the fact that it is a visual medium, television can present information more correctly than written and spoken text, making it an ideal medium in which to (37) _______ some of the skills and knowledge needed for later reading. Question 33: A. actively B. activity C. activate D. active Question 34: A. Due to B. For example C. However D. Because Question 35: A. where B. that C. who D. when Question 36: A. occupied B. covered C. equipped D. observed Question 37: A. allocate B. cultivate C. regulate D. manipulate TOPIC: TOURISM Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42. Edinburgh, the capital of Scotland, is in the south-east of the country. Edinburgh is situated on the coast, and the beautiful, green Pentland hills are not far from the city centre. Castle Rock stands in the centre of Edinburgh and is the best place for fantastic views of the city. With a population of almost half a million people, the city is an exciting mix of traditional and modern. The first stop for most visitors to the city is the castle on Castle Rock. It is certainly worth a visit and the area nearby is full of shops that sell whisky and tartans to the tourists. Edinburgh’s most famous street, the Royal Mile, runs from the castle to the Palace of Holyrood house and the Scottish Parliament. Along the street, you can see many interesting buildings and you can stop for a drink at a traditional, old Scottish pub. During your visit, you should certainly take the time to see other parts of the city. Princess Street has lovely gardens, museums and shops. The New Town is a superb area for walking with its attractive 18th century houses, offices and churches. Finally. The Grassmarket is an old part of the city, which is full of cafés, bars and restaurants. 43 Edinburgh’s nightlife is excellent. Clubs usually stay open until three in the morning. You can hear live music in pubs, choose from a number of first-class cinemas or go to a ‘ceilidh’ (a traditional Scottish dance). The best time to come to the city is in August. Thousands of people visit the Edinburgh Festival, the world’s biggest arts festival held every summer. With concerts, opera, theatre and art exhibitions, there is something for everyone. For winter visitors. Hogmanay (the Scottish New Year) is also an incredible experience that you will never forget. Question 38: Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. Famous Cities in Scotland B. A Description of Scotland C. The future of Edinburgh D. A Destination Guide to Edinburgh Question 39: The word “mix” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________. A. mess B. mood C. combination D. action Question 40: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to ___________. A. the area B. a visit C. the castle D. the city Question 41: According to paragraph 4, what is a ‘ceilidh’? A. It is a kind of Scottish music B. It is a traditional Scottish dance C. It is the first Scottish cinema D. It is the name of a Scottish pub. Question 42: According to paragraph 5, what is NOT true about the Edinburgh Festival? A. It attracts thousands of visitors B. It takes place in winter C. It offers arts performances D. It is a famous event. TOPIC: EDUCATION Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. The first impressions are rather menacing. Visitors must sign inn and show identification before being allowed into the building. Such tight security gives one the feeling of entering a prison or some other dangerous place. But what a deceptive first impressions! Manhattan Comprehensive Might High School may be the friendliest, most caring institution in all of New York City. A school of last resort for many of its students, it is their best chance to turn their lives around, and make friends in the process. Manhattan Comp, as it is called, is the first full-time night high school in America. High school is compulsory until the age of sixteen in America, but many students drop out, either before or after they reach sixteen, and before receiving their high school diplomas. Until now, night education programmes for dropouts only provided the basics and then awarded an equivalency certificate. But now, Manhattan Comp offers the total high school experience, complete with a ‘lunch’ break, physical education and clubs. The students receive an academic diploma, which they say is more helpful in getting a job than an equivalency certificate. More than sixty percent of Manhattan Comp’s students go on to college. Most of the school’s 450 students have either been expelled from or dropped out of other high schools. Some have been in two or three schools before this one. What seems to make this school work for these hard-to-place students is the staff and, most importantly, the principal. All students call him Howard. As he walks through the building, he greets students by name, asks about their families or jobs and jokes with them about the lack of variety in the school cafeteria. Most student at Manhattan Comp are between eighteen and twenty-two years old. You must be at least seventeen to enroll. The classes run from 5 to 11 p.m, Mondays through Thursdays, with all day enrichment programmes on Sundays which explore topics like playwriting, art and video production.School terms are ten weeks long, which gibes students the opportunity to take time off for 44 family matters or jobs. Most students already have some academic credits form previous schools, so instead of the normal four years in high school, they spend between six months and two years at Manhattan Comp. Question 43: Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. Manhattan Comp: One of a Kind B. The Success Story of a Typical American School C. A Day in the Life of a Manhattan Comp Student D. Night Schools: A Passing Fad Question 44: The word “deceptive” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _________. A. misleading B. subjective C. lasting D. unwelcoming Question 45: What do Manhattan Comp students say about their academic diploma? A. It reflects a more thorough schooling experience B. It ensures their admission to well-known colleges. C. It improves their chances of getting employed. D. It demonstrates their superior academic competence. Question 46: The phrase “expelled from” in paragraph 3 mostly means __________. A. qualified to graduate B. forced to leave C. asked to stay D. invited to attend Question 47: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to _________. A. students B. credits C. years D. schools Question 48: How long does it generally take students to complete the education at Manhattan Comp? A. From six months to two years B. Two years and a half C. Ten weeks D. Four years Question 49: Which statement is NOT true, according to the passage? A. The schooling experience at Manhattan Comp is likely to change the students’ lives for the better. B. Many students at Manhattan Comp have never had any formal schooling before. C. All of the students at Manhattan Comp are seventeen or above. D. Visitors to Manhattan Comp are required to go through certain security procedures. Question 50: What can be inferred about Manhattan Comp from the passage? A. It has recently been equipped with state-of-the-art facilities. B. Its students are required to work part-time while pursuing their studies there. C. Its principal is well-liked among the students for his amiability. D. It plays down the importance of extra-curricular activities. MÃ ĐỀ 412 TOPIC: ENTERTAINMENT Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 37 The importance of fairy tales for children Fairy tales are the stories that adults, especially parents, tell young children. In view of their name, it is surprising that hardly any of them are actually about fairies. (33) ______ most fairy tales have happy endings, the stories usually deal with very (34) ______ situations – children abandoned in the forest, terrifying giants, 45 cruel stepmothers. However, despite being scared when they are told the stories, children will often ask to hear them over and over again. Many psychologists believe that what fary tales do, in addition to (35) ______ children’s imagination, is to show that there are problems in the world and they can be overcome. Just like adults, children have fears and worries: theirs are of things such as abandonment, loss, injuries, witches. Fairy tales present real problems in a fantasy form (36) ____ childrean are able to understand. This, it is claimed, allow them to (37) _____ thir fears and to realise, if ever in their unconscious mind, that no matter how difficult the circumstances, there are always ways of coping. Question 33: A. Although B. Therefore C. Despite D. Because Question 34: A. frighten B. frighteningly C. fright D. frightening Question 35: A. inciting B. motivating C. stimulating D. speculating Question 36: A. that B. why C. where D. who Question 37: A. confront B. alter C. nurture D. suffer TOPIC: PLACES OF INTEREST Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 38 to 42 Norwich is the capital of East Anglia, an area on the east coast of England which is famous for its natural beauty and impressive architecture. Norwich is a wonderful city to explore and is popular with tourists all year round. Norwich is not a city of luxurious hotels, but it has a good selection of reasonably priced places to stay in, both in the city centre and further out. The Beeches Hotel, for example, next to the cathedral, has a beautiful Victorian garden. Comfortable accomodations costs £65 for two nights’ bed and breakfast per person. Norwich is famous for its magnificent cathedral. The cathedral has a summer programme of music and events which is open to the general public. One event, ‘’Fire from heaven’’ , is a drama and musical performance with fireworks, a laser light show and a carnival with local people dressed in colourful costumes. Norwich is also home to the Sainsbury Centre for Visual Arts, a world-class collection of international art in a building at the University of East Anglia. This is well worth a visit and there is a lovely canteen with an excellent selection of hot and cold snacks. It also specializes in vegetarian food. In addition, the city has a new professional theatre, the Playhouse, on the River Wensum. The city’ annual international arts festival is from 10 to 20 October. Finally, if you fancy a complete break from the stresses of everyday life,you could hire a boat and spend a few days cruising along the river of the famous Norfolk Broads National Park. In our environmentally friendly age, the emphasis has moved forwards the quiet enjoyment of nature and wildlife. You can buy hire a boat, big or small, for an hour or two or even up to a week or two. This makes a perfect day out or holiday for people of all ages. Question 38: Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. Holidays in Norwich B. A Destination Guide to England C. England’s Famous Cities D. Daily Life in Norwich Question 39: The word ‘’it’’ in paragraph 2 refers to _____. 46 A. selection B. the Beeches Hotel C. the city centre D. Norwich Question 40: According to paragraph 2, which is NOT part of ‘’Fire from Heaven’’? A. fireworks display B. A laser light show C. A campfire D. A carnival Question 41: The word ‘’cruishing’’ in paragraph 4 mostly means _____. A. travelling by boat B. surfing C. swimming D. moving on land Question 42: According to the passage, where is the Sainsbury Centre for Visual Arts located? A. In a new professional theatre on the River Wensum B. In the Norfolk Broads National Park C. In an intertional art museum D. In a building at the University of East Anglia TOPIC: ENERGY Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50. The United Nations recently outlined the extent of the global water crisis, saying that 2.7 billion people would face severe water shortages by 2025 if consumption continues at current rates.Today, an estimated 1.2 billion people drink unclean water, and about 2.5 billion lack proper toilets or waste disposal systems. More than five million people die each year from diseases related to unclean water. Humans are pumping water out of the ground faster than it can be replenished. In this difficult situation, a water conservatiionist, Neil MacLeod in South Africa, has found innovative ways to improve his local water situation. Neil MacLeod took over as head of Durban Metro Water Services in 1992. The situation he found was a catastrophe. Durban had one million people living in the city and another 1.5 million people who lived in poverty just outside it. The entire city was rife with broken water pipes, leaky toilets, and faulty plumbing whereby 42 percent of the region’s water was simply being wasted. MacLeod’s crews began repairing and replacing water pipes. They put water meters on residences, replaced eight-litter toilets with four-litter models, and changed wasteful showers and water taps. To ensure that the poor would receive a basic supply of water, MacLeod installed tanks in homes and apartments to provide 190 liters of water a day free to each household. Water consumption in Durban is now less than it was in 1996, even as 800,000 more people have received service. Through sensible water use, Durban’s conservation measures paid for themselves within a year. No new reservoirs will be needed in the coming decades, despite the expected addition of about 300,000 inhabitants. MacLeod has also turned to water recycling. At the water recycling plant, wastewater is turned into clean water in just 12 hours. Most people are unable to discern a difference between the usual city drinking water and the treated wastewater, although it is actually intended for industrial purposes. Some people still hope that new technology, such as the desalination of seawater, will solve the world’s water problems. ‘’But the fact is, water conservation is where the big gains are to be made,’’ says Sandra Postel of the Global Water Policy Project. The dedication and resourcefulness of people like Neil MacLeod offer inspiration for implementing timely and lasting solutions to the world’s water concern. 47 Question 43: Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. South Africa to Succesfully Desalinate Seawater B. Drinkable Seawater – A Dream Turning Sour? C. The United Nations to Address Local Water Situations D. Tackling Water Problems: A Story from South Africa Question 44: According to the passage, how many people have to drink unclean water worldwide? A. Around 1.2 billion B. 2.5 billion C. 2.7 billion D. 5 billion Question 45: The word ‘’catastrophe’’ in paragraph 2 is mostly a situation which is ____. A. disastrous B. unlikely C. local Question 46: The word ‘’it’’ in paragraph 3 refers to ____. D. familiar A. Durban B. service C. household D. water consumption Question 47: The word ‘’discern’’ in paragraph 4 could be best replaced by ____. A. recognize B. examine C. emphasize D. appreciate Question 48: What is the essence of Neil MacLeod’s solutions to the water problems in Durban? A. Reliance on foreign aid B. Exploitation of fround water C. Conservation of water D. Construction of new reservoirs Question 49: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage? A. Money saved from seasible water use helped cover the cost of reservoir construction in Durban. B. Provision of desalinated seawater is the ultimate solution to the world’s water problems. C. Over forty percent of Durban’s water was wasted through faulty plumbing, leaks and bursts. D. In Durban, treated waste water is provided free of charge to meet the residents’ daily needs. Question 50: What can be inferred from the passage? A. Water shortages are the most severe in areas with substandard toilet facilities. B. It used to take about half a day to convert wasewater into drinkable water. C. Each Durban household is not allowed to use more than 190 liters of water per day. D. A growth in population normally necessitates a rise in the number of reservoirs. 48