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Đề thi HSG Tiếng Anh 11, cụm Mê Linh - Sóc Sơn, năm học 2019-2020

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SOC
SON – ME LINH GROUP


School
year: 2019-2020







THE
OLYMPIC EXAMINATION


THE
ENGLISH TEST FOR GRADE 11


Time
allowance: 120 minutes







I.
SECTION ONE: PHONETICS (2/20points)



Part
1: (1 point) Choose the

words
whose pronunciation is different from the others

in
each of the following questions
.
Write your answer in the table given below.


1.
A. commer
cial
B. spe
cial C.
artifi
cial
D. re
cipient


2.
A. ar
chitecture
B.
characters
C.
chaos
D.
charitable


3.
A.
adventure B.
advantage C.
advertise D.
addition


4.
A. her
bage
B. plum
ber C.
dou
bt D.
de
bt


5.
A. prop
erty B.
acc
ess C.
poss
ession D.
prosp
ect

























1.



2.



3.



4.



5.







Part
2: (1 point) Choose the word that differs from the rest in the
position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Write
your answer in the table given below.


6.
A. spectator B. outstanding C. typical D. intensive


7.
A. delegation B. energetic C. participant D. competition


8.
A.

altogether B.
eventually C.

capacity D.
particular



9.
A. exhausted B. atmosphere C. suspect D. computer


10.
A. windsurfing B. temperature C. synchronize D. procedure


























6.



7.



8.



9.



10.







II.
SECTION TWO: LEXICO – GRAMMAR (8/20 points)


Part
1: (0,6 point) Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Write
your answer in the table given below.


11.
Nader was the
most 
prominent leader
of the U.S consumer protection movement.


 A.
casual                  
B
significant           
C
promiscuous        
D
aggressive


12.
Tourists today 
flock to
see the two falls that actually constitute Niagara falls.


 A.
come without knowing what they will see
B.
come in large numbers


 C.
come out of boredom
D.
come by plane


13.
Around 150
B.C. the Greek astronomer Hipparchus developed a system
to 
classify stars
according to brightness.


 Arecord      
B
shine        
C
categorize            
D
diversify



















11.



12.



13.








Part
2: (0,4 point) Choose the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Write
your answer in the table given below.


14.
 During
the five- decade history the Asian Games have been 
advancing in
all aspects.


 A.
holding
at            
B
.
 
holding
back        C
.
 
holding
to            
D
holding
by


15.
Unless the two signatures are 
identical,
the bank
won’t honor the check.


A.
similar     
B
fake      C.
different     D
genuine
















14.



15.








Part
3: (4 points) Choose the best option A, B, C or D to finish each of
the following sentences.
Write
your answer in the table given below.



  1. He
    _______ his son of the dangers of driving too fast in his new car.



A.
warned B. remembered C. threatened D. concerned



  1. They
    live in a very__________ populated area of Italy.



A.
barely B. scarcely C. hardly D. sparsely



  1. I
    only ________ we were running low on petrol after we had passed the
    last filling station.



A.
observed B. witnessed C. beheld D. noticed



  1. Peter
    agreed reluctantly to sign the form but looked extremely ill at
    _________.



A.
agreement B. ease C. heart D. soul



  1. His
    illness made him_________ of concentration.



A.
incompetent B. unable C. incapable D. powerless



  1. He
    was ________ when he left the village and went to live in London.



A.
like a fish out of water B. like a lion out of cage


C.
like counting the chickens D. like letting sleeping dogs lie.



  1. Somediv
    ran in front of the car as I was driving. Fortunately I_____________
    just in time.



A.
could stop B. could have stopped C. managed to stop D. must be able
to stop



  1. _________,
    I would like to say how pleased I am to be here.



A.
Primarily B. Foremost C. Earliest D. First


24. George
took _______ of the fine weather to do the gardening.


A. charge B. advantage 
    C. chance D. interest


25.
Sue: “You look tired.”     
       
 Mary: “Yes, it was _________ that I felt like going to bed.”


A. so long a
test         B. very long test C.
such long test D. a long test


26. “During the exam, we are not permitted to talk, walk or smoke.” “That’s right. The school authority 


won’t allow ________


A. to smoke B. smoke
C. smoking D. smokes


27.
Mary was the last applicant ________ for the post of manager
assistant.


A.
to interview
B.
interviewing
C.
to be interviewed
D.
interviewed


28.
He was looked _______ by others because of his poverty.


A. out
for B. into C. down upon D. up to


29.
“Would you like to go to the cinema with me this afternoon?”
“- ________”.


A.
Thank you. It's very kind of you to invite me.
B.
Yes, I really like being in a crowd


C.
That's a good idea.
D.
I'm sorry


30.
By the end of next year, George ________ English for 2 years.


A.
has learnt B.
will
have learnt
C.
will
learn
D.
would learn


31.
He got an excellent grade in his examination ________ the fact that
he had not worked particularly hard.


A. in
spite of B. on account of C. although D. because
of


32.
Don't forget to come to my party tomorrow, ________?


A. haven’t
you B. don’t you C. can you D. will
you


33.
The
school clock is not as ______ as it should be, it is usually between
one or two minutes fast.


A.
strict B. certain C. true D. accurate


34.
One
________ of their new house is that it has no garden.


A.
pity B. dislike C. complaint D. disadvantage


35.
Only ________ he told me his surname did I realize that we had been
to the same school.


A. then B. when
C. until D. as soon as




















































16.



17.



18.



19.



20.



21.



22.



23.



24.



25.



26.



27.



28.



29.



30.



31.



32.



33.



34.



35.







Part
4: (1 point) Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence
that needs correcting.
Write
your answer in the table given below.


36.
Several
(A) people have
apparent
(B) tried to change the man’s
mind
(C), but he refuses
to
listen

(D).


37.
Plants
 absorb
water
 (A)
and
nutrients and
 anchoring
themselves

(B) in
 the
soil
 (C)
with their
roots

(D).


38.
It is necessary that one
 met (A)
a
judge
 before
signing
 (B)
the
final

(C) papers
 for
a
divorce

(D).



  39.
Astronomers
do not know
 how
many
 (A)
galaxies there
are

(B) but
is it
(C)
thought
that there



are millions
or perhaps billions

(D).
 


40.
Both
viruses
 also (A)
genes are (B)
made
from nucleoproteins, the essential chemicals with which
 


living (C)
matter
duplicates
 itself
(D).

























36.



37.



38.



39.



40.







Part
5: (2 points)
Use
the correct form of each word in bold type to complete the numbered
spaces provided in the passage. Write your answers in the table given
below.






The
concept of urban agriculture may conjure up images of rooftop,
backyard or community gardens scattered among downtown city streets
and surrounding neighborhoods. But in the Seattle area, and within
and beyond the Puget Sound region, it means a great deal more. “Urban
agriculture doesn’t (41) __(
necessity)___
equate to production that occurs only in a metropolitan urban area,”
says Jason Niebler, who directs the Sustainable Agriculture Education
(SAgE) Initiative at Seattle Central Community College. “It
means we are providing for growing population food needs from
surrounding rural landscapes, as well as from the core urban
landscape.”


Picture
a series of concentric circles, with an urban core that produces some
food at varying (42) ___(
capable)___,
surrounded by a series of outlying rings of small farms that become
increasingly more rural with distance. The hope is that such land use
planning, from the inner core to the outer rings, will encourage
local ecologically sound sustainable food production. This, in turn,
will create local jobs and decrease (43) ___(
rely)___
on distant food products that (44) ___(
origin)___
from petroleum-intensive large scale farms.


That’s
the idea behind SAgE, believed to be the nation’s first
metropolitan-based community college sustainable agriculture program
that emphasizes farming practices across diverse landscape types from
urban centers to surrounding rural environs. “It’s small
scale agriculture with an urban focus,” Niebler says. “Any
urban population, large or small, can practice sustainable
agriculture, improve food security and protect the environment, which
ultimately results in resilient food systems and communities.”


SAgE
is a part of National Science Foundation’s Advanced
Technological Education (ATE) Program, which is providing the project
with $157,375 over two years. ATE’s goal is to support projects
that strengthen the skills of (45) __(
technical)__
who work in industries regarded as vital to the national’s (46)
___(
prosperous)__
and security. The support largely goes to community colleges that
work in partnership with universities, secondary schools, businesses
and industries, as well as government agencies, which design and (47)
__(
implementation)__
model workforce initiatives.


The
SAgE project focuses on the environmental, socioeconomic, political
and cultural issues related to sustainable food systems, within Puget
Sound watersheds through student and community education and
research, and technological (48) ___(
innovate)___.
The curriculum offers courses that cover such issues as agricultural
ecology, urban food systems, food politics and ethics, soil science,
sustainable food production and technology, the integration of food
and forests, and career opportunities.


We’ve
created a curriculum that is fundamental in nature, addressing the
principles of sustainable agriculture and what a food system is –
how it functions both locally and globally,” Niebler says.
“These courses are challenging, robust and (49) ___(
inspire)
___. One of the really wonderful things about them is that we offer
service learning opportunities, where students devote a portion of
their time to working with local partner organizations. They can do a
research project, or a service learning option. The ideal would be to
(50) __(
prompting)___
students into careers that involve sustainable practices in an urban
agriculture setting.”


(Adapted
from “Promoting Sustainable Agriculture” by Mariene
Cimons.)
































41.



42.



43.



44.



45.



46.



47.



48.



49.



50.







III.
SECTION THREE: READING (7/20 points)



Part
1: (2 points) Read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C, or
D best fits each space.
Write
your answers in the table provided below.







Schools
in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries.
As recently as 1958 about half of the public schools in the United
States had no libraries at all. The (51)________ of public school
libraries increased dramatically (52)_______ the federal government
passed the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, (
53)_______ provided funds for school districts to improve their
education programs and facilities, including their libraries. (54)
________, many educators claim that since the legislation was passed
federal spending has not increased sufficiently to meet the rising
(55)______ of new library technologies such as computer databases and
Internet access.



Because
the federal government provides only limited funds to schools,
individual school districts (56) ­­­_______on funds from
local property taxes to meet the vast majority of public school
expenses. Therefore, the libraries of the public schools tend to
reflect the (57) ______ capabilities of the communities in which they
are located. Districts in wealthy suburbs often have fully staffed
libraries (58) _______ abundant resources, spacious facilities, and
curricular and instructional support. In (59) ______, school
districts in many poor areas house their libraries in ordinary
classrooms or in small rooms. The libraries in such areas are
generally staffed by volunteers, who organize and (60) ______ books
that are often out-of-date, irrelevant, or damaged.






51. A.
digit B. numeral C. number D. variety


52. A.
though B. before C. during D. when


53. A.
which B. that C. who D. this


54. A.
Consequently B. Nevertheless C. Therefore D. Otherwise


55. A.
fine B. fee C. cost D. sum


56. A.
go B. stay C. come D. rely


57. A.
financial B. educational C. political D. economical


58. A.
by B. with C. for D. on


59. A.
contrary B. contrast C. conflict D. converse


60. A.
attain B. obtain C. contain D. maintain








































51.



52.



53.



54.



55.



56.



57.



58.



59.



60.








Part
2: (2 points) Read the text below and think of the word which best
fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers
in the table below.


Vitamins
are substances (61)………… for the proper
functioning of the div. In this century, thirteen vitamins have been
discovered.


A
lack of any vitamins in a person’s div can cause illness. In
some cases, an excess of vitamins can also (62)…………to
illness. For example, sailors in the past were prone (63)…………suffer
from scurvy that is a disease resulting from the lack of vitamin C.
It causes bleeding of the gum, loss of teeth and skin rashes. Sailors
suffer from scurvy because they did not eat fruits and vegetables.
Fruits and vegetables contain vitamin C (64)…………is
necessary for good (65)…………


Vitamin
B complex is composed of eight different vitamins. A lack of any of
these vitamins will cause different diseases. For (66)…………,
a person who has too little vitamin B1 will suffer from beriberi, a
disease that causes weakness and heart (67)…………
A lack of vitamin B2 (68)………… in eye and
skin problems while deficiency of vitamin B6 causes problems of the
nervous system. Too little vitamin B12 will cause anemia. The
knowledge that vitamin deficiencies caused certain diseases led
doctors to cure people suffering from these illnesses by giving them
doses of the (69)……...vitamins.


Today,
vitamins are (70)…………in the form of pills
and can easily be bought at any pharmacy.
































61.



62.



63.



64.



65.



66.



67.



68.



69.



70.







Part
2: (1 point)
Read
the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C
or D) to answer the questions.
Write
your answers in the table below.


CLASSIC
TOURS


Luggage

We
ask you to keep luggage down to one medium-sized suitcase per person,
but a small holdall can also be taken on board.


Seat
Allocation

Requests
for particular seats can be made on most coach breaks when booking,
but since allocations are made on a first come first served basis,
early booking is advisable. When bookings are made with us you will
be offered the best seats that are available on the coach at that
time.

Travel
Documents

When
you have paid your deposit we will send to you all the necessary
documents and labels, so that you receive them in good time before
the coach break departure date. Certain documents, for example, air
or boat tickets, may have to be retained and your driver or courier
will then issue them to you at the relevant point.

Special
Diets

If
you require a special diet you must inform us at the time of booking
with a copy of the diet. This will be notified to the hotel or hotels
on your coach break, but on certain coach breaks the hotels used are
tourist class and whilst offering value for money within the price
range, they may not have the full facilities to cope with special
diets. Any extra costs incurred must be paid to the hotel by yourself
before departure from the hotel.

Accommodation

Many
of our coach-breaks now include, within the price, accommodation with
private facilities, and this will be indicated on the coach break
page. Other coach breaks have a limited number of rooms with private
facilities which, subject to availability, can be reserved and
guaranteed at the time of booking - the supplementary charge shown in
the price panel will be added to your account.

On any coach
break, there are only a limited number of single rooms. When a single
room is available, it may be subject to a supplementary charge and
this will be shown on the brochure page.

Entertainment

Some
of our hotels arrange additional entertainment which could include
music, dancing, film shows, etc. The nature and frequency of the
entertainment presented is at the discretion of the hotel and
therefore not guaranteed and could be withdrawn if there is a lack of
demand or insufficient numbers in the hotel.  






71. 
If you want to sit at the front of the coach, __________.

   
A. ask when you get on the coach B. arrive early on the departure
date

    C. book your seat well in advance D.
avoid travelling at peak times


72. Your
air tickets ____________.

    A. will be sent to
your departure point B. must be collected before leaving

   
C. will be enclosed with other documents D. may be held by your coach
driver


73. 
If you need a special diet you should ___________.

   
A. inform the hotel when you arrive B. pay extra with the
booking

    C. tell the coach company D. book
tourist class


74. 
It may be necessary to pay extra for ____________.

    A.
a bathroom B. boat tickets C. additional luggage D. entertainment


75. 
With every booking, Classic Tours guarantee you will be able to
______________.

    A. request high-quality
meals B. take hand luggage on the coach

    C.
use your own personal bathroom D. see a film if you want to

























71.



72.



73.



74.



75.







Part
3: (2 points)

Read
the passage then choose the best sentences A-J to fill in each gap.
Write
your answers in the table provided below.


Chocolate,
which has its origins in South America, is now part of a
multi-million pound worldwide business.


At
Easter, British people spend over $230 million on chocolate. A
massive eight per cent of all chocolate is bought at this time.


(76)____.
Although the large scale industrial production of chocolate began in
the last century, the cacao plant was first cultivated by the Aztec,
Toltec and Mayan civilizations of Central America over three thousand
years ago.


The
cacao tree is an evergreen, tropical plant which is found in Africa,
South and Central America, the West Indies and South East Asia. The
fruit of this tree is melon-sized and contains 20-40 seeds. (77)____.
In English – speaking countries, they are called cacao beans.
This is a misspelling from the 17
th
century when they were also called cacao and cacao beans.


The
Aztecs used cocoa beans as money. (78)____. This is from the world in
the Aztec language, Nahuatl, meaning “bitter water”.
(79)____. The Spanish found the drink more palatable mixed with
cinnamon and sugar, but the recipe did not spread to the rest of
Europe for another century. In the late 17
th
century, chocolate houses were set up in Europe’s capital
cities, where people gathered to drink chocolate.


(80)____.
But in 1826, CJ Van Houten of the Netherlands invented chocolate
powder. (81)____.


The
age of the chocolate bar as we know it began in 1847 when a Bristol
company, Fry and Sons, combined cocoa butter with pure chocolate
liquor and sugar to produce a solid block that you could eat.
(82)____.


At
the turn of the century, the British chocolate market was dominated
by French companies. In 1879 the English company Cadbury even named
their Birmingham factory Bournville (ville is the French word for
town) in the hope that a little glamour would rub off. But then came
Cadbury’s famous Dairy Milk bar which began life as a Dairymaid
in 1905. (83)____.


It
seems that, for the time being at least, chocolate intake in Britain
has established at about four bars each week. (84)____. The latest
market trick is the so-called “extended line”. This is
when the humble chocolate bar becomes an ice cream, a soft drink or a
dessert, to tempt chocoholics who have grown tired of conventional
snacks.


At
the other end of the production process, cacao farmers are still
feeling the effects of a crash in cocoa bean prices at the end of
1980s. (85)____. Perhaps you could spare a thought for them as you
munch your next chocolate bars.


A.
This was made by extracting most of the cocoa butter from the crushed
beans.


B.
A Swiss company then introduced milk solids to the process which gave
us milk chocolate.


C.
They also used them to make a drink called xocoatl.


D.
Until the last century, the chocolate drink was made from solid
blocks of chocolate which had to be melted down in hot water.


E.
When dried they become cacao beans, which can be used to make
chocolate.


F.
Clever advertising which associated it with the healthy qualities of
milk from the English countryside quickly established the bar as a
rival to the more decadent French brands.


G.
As most cacao farmers operate on a very small scale, many were forced
out of business.


H.
This has forced manufacturers to look for new ways to attract
customers.


I.
In Aztec times the chocolate drink was flavored with spices and used
on ceremonial occasions and for welcoming visitors.


J.
Only at Christmas do people eat more of the cocoa-based foodstuffs.








































76.



77.



78.



79.



80.



81.



82.



83.



84.



85.







IV.
WRITING. (3 points)


Part
1: (2 points)
Finish
each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly
the same as the sentences printed before.
Write
your answers in the space provided below.






86.
I am having a lot of trouble now because I lost my passport last
week.


If
I

...........................................................................................................................................


87.
It is sad, but unemployment is unlikely to go down this year.


Sad
…………………………………………………………………………………………..


88.
Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.


Having………………………………………………………………………………..………


89.
You won’t find a more dedicated teacher anywhere than Mrs.
Jones.



Nowhere………………………………………………………………………………………


90.
If we can solve the problem soon, it will be better for all
concerned.


The
sooner.................................................................................................................................


91.
It would have been a super weekend if it hadn’t been for the
weather.



But…..........................................................................................................................................


92.
It’s possible that he didn’t get my letter.



He
might.....................................................................................................................................


93.
The Great Wall of China is the most magnificent structure that can be
seen from the Moon.



It
is...............................................................................................................................................


94.
I would prefer you to do computer science.



I
would rather
you........................................................................................................................


95.
I was not surprised to hear that Harry had failed his driving test.



It
came…………………………………………………………………………………………







Part
2: (1 point)
For
each of the sentences below, write a new sentence as similar as
possible in meaning to it. Use the word given on the right, and this
word must not be changed in any way.
Write
your answers in the space provided below.







96.
The children made every effort to please their father. (
best)



………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………..


97.
I wrote this book because I want to help my students with writing.
(
view)



………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………..


98.
It’s becoming extremely expensive to maintain the museum.
(
upkeep)



………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………..


99.
The committee said they liked the first proposal. (
preference)



………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………..



100.
I want to be left alone. (
disturbed)


………….
………………………………………………………………………………………………..










End
of the test!















The
Olympic Test for Grade 11 11


School year: 2019-2020