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Đề thi chọn HSG tiếng anh 7 trường THCS Thanh Vân- Hà Nội

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PHÒNG GD&ĐT THANH OAI
TRƯỜNG THCS THANH VĂN

ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 7
Năm học: 2014 – 2015
Môn: Tiếng Anh
Thời gian: 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Chú ý: - Bộ đề thi này gồm có 05 trang, từ trang 01 đến trang 05.
- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào bộ đề thi này.
Điểm
- Bằng số:....................
- Bằng chữ:.................
....................................

Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1
...............................................................
Họ tên, chữ ký của người chấm thi số 1
...............................................................

Số phách
(Do chủ tịch hội
đồng chấm thi ghi)
.................................

PART ONE: LISTENING (0,2 x 10 =2.0 pts)
Listen to the passage and complete the missing information.
For good or bad, computers are now part of our daily life. Experts predict that before
long all schools and businesses and most families in the rich parts of the world will (1)
…………...a computer of some kind. Among the general public, computers arouse
strong feelings-people either love them (2)…………………… hate them.
The computer lovers talk about how useful computers can be in business, in education
and (3) …………………..the home. Apart (4) …………………… all the games, you
can do your accounts on them, learn languages from them, write letters on them, and in
some places even(5)……………………your shopping with them. They say that
computers bring leisure, as many (6)……………… jobs are taken over by computerized
robots. The haters, on the other hand, argue that computers bring not leisure but (7)
…………………... They worry, too, that people (8)…………………spend all the time
talking to computers may forget (9) ………………. to talk to each other. Their biggest
fear is that computers may eventually take (10) ………………. from human beings
altogether.
1.....................
6.....................

2.....................
7.....................

3.....................
8.....................

4.....................
9.....................

5.....................
10....................

PART TWO: PHONETICS (0,2 x 10 =2.0 pts)
I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the
others by circling A, B, C, or D: (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.

A. happy
A. mind
A. school
A. health
A. sun

B. apple
B. bike
B. chair
B. team
B. fun

C. act
C. fit
C. church
C. tea
C. son

D. aunt
D. tidy
D. chat
D. sea
D. put

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling

A,B,C or D (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)
16. A. awful
B. amazing
17. A. middle
B. around
18. A. contest
B. cartoon
19. A. destination
B. anniversary
20. A. skinful
B. discovery

C. lovely
C. friendly
C. dislike
C. direction
C. problem

D. beautiful
D. country
D. audience
D. education
D. popular

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: (0,2 x 30 =6.0 pts)
I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences: ((0.2 x 1.0
=2.0 pts)
21. This book ……………….to me. It’s his.
A. is not belonged
B. belongs not
C. not belongs
D. doesn’t belong
22 “ Was he disappointed?” “ Yes, he found the movie…………….”
A. boring
B. boringly
C. bored
D. bores
23. My brother never goes to school late and..................................
A. so do I.
B. Neither don’t I. C. I don’t, either D. I don’t, too
24. Some people are used to…………..in crowded buses, and don’t mind it at all.
A. ride.
B. riding
C. rides
D. rode
25. He was only thirteen, but he ate ..............................his father did.
A. as much as
B. as many as
C. much than
D. more much than
26. She works very………………..
A. hardly
B. studiously
C. lazy
D. careful
27.These vegetables don’t taste ........................to us
A. well
B. freshly
C. fresh
D. deliciously
28. I’m pleased that you and your family are …………...
A. good
B. well
C. best
D. better
29. The letter is ………………..French and I don’t speak a word of French. Can you
help me?
A. in
B. with
C. by
D. on
30.You should pay more………………..in class.
A. part
B. care
C. notice
D. attention
II. Write the correct form of the words given in capital letters: (0.2 x 10 =2.0 pts)
31. English is an.....................................and important subject.
INTEREST
32. In electronics they learn to repair......................... appliances.
HOUSE
33. The most popular............................ at recess is talking.
ACT
34. Hoa is having a ............................. check-up.
MEDICINE
35. The nurse wanted to know Nga’s height and .................
WEIGH
36. Hoa is the …….......….. student in her school.
GOOD
37. I’d like a nice.........................orange.
JUICE
38. Edison’s most famous............................was the electronic bulb.
INVENT
39. This dictionary is very .................... for you to learn english.
USE
40. I have .............. time to play than my friends.
LITTLE
III. Supply the correct form of the verbs in the brackets. (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)
41.We can’t go out now because it (rain ) ……………………. .
42. They (meet) …………………….their teacher at the moment.

43. We (visit ) …………………….the museum at the moment. We (visit )
…………………….it once a year.
44. Ha ( not write ) ……………………. to her parents last week. She ( phone )
……………………. them.
45.Duy ( not visit) …………………….the museum with his class last Sunday because
he (catch ) …………………….a cold.
IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (0.2 x 5 =1.0
pt)
46. I’m not very fond …………….. detective stories.
47. Margarine is different ………….. butter.
48. Many people take part ………….. jogging every morning.
49. They study and listen to music …………… the same time.
50. We’d like a walk instead ……………..riding a bike.
PART FOUR: READING: (0.2 x 25 =5.0 pts)
I. Read and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage: (0.2 x 10
=2.0 pts)
SINGAPORE
Singapore is an island city of about three million people. It's a beautiful (1) ...........
with lots of parks and open spaces. It's also a very (2) ................. city.
Most of the people (3) ................ in high rise flats in different parts of the island.
The business district is very modern with (4) ........... of high new office buildings.
Singapore also has some nice older sections. In China town, there (5) ................. rows of
old shop houses. The Government buildings in Singapore are very (6)................. and date
from the colonial days.
Singapore is famous (7).......... its shops and restaurants. There are many good
shopping centers. Most of the (8) .......... are duty free. Singapore's restaurants (9) ........
Chinese, Indian, Malay and European food, and the (10) ............ are quite reasonable.
51. A. district
B. town
C. city
D. village
52. A. large
B. dirty
C. small
D. clean
53. A. live
B. lives
C. are living
D. lived
54. A. lot
B. lots
C. many
D. much
55. A. is
B. will be
C. were
D. are
56. A. beauty
B. beautiful
C. beautify
D. beautifully
57. A. in
B. on
C. at
D. for
58. A. good
B. goods
C. goodness
D. goody
59. A. sells
B. selling
C. sell
D. sold
60. A. priced
B. price
C. prices
D. prier
II. Fill each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage: (0.2 x 10 =2.0
pts)
My name is Nam. Last weekend, I visited the countryside (61)
…………………..my classmates. The place is not very far (62)…………….. our town.
We came there by bus – a journey of two hours. On arriving there, we (63)
……………….straight to our friend’s house. He is Trung whose parents (64)
…………….. farmers living in the countryside. We drank coconut milk and (65)

…………a lot of country pancakes. After that we went flying kites in a paddy (66)
……….. then we went swimming in the river near Trung’s house. We played games
together.
Finally, in the afternoon we (67)…………………… the countryside for the town.
And reached (68) ……………….. at about 6 P.M. We really had a (69)……………… of
fun. The countryside is wonderful to me. It has (70) ………………beautiful and
interesting places than in the town.
III. Read the passage and answer the questions. (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)
Frank is now the head of a very large business company, but as a boy he used to work
in a small shop. It was his job to repair bicycles and at the time he used to work fourteen
hours a day. He saved money for years and in 1938 he bought a small workshop of his
own. During the war, Frank used to make spare part for planes. At that time he had two
helpers. By the end of the war, the small workshop had become a large factory which
employed seven hundred and twenty-eight people. Frank smiled when he remembered
his hard early years and the long road to success.
* Questions:
71. Where did Frank use to work when he was a boy?
® ....................................................................................................................
72. Did he use to work forty hours a day?
® ....................................................................................................................
73. When did he buy his own workshop?
® .................................................................................................................
64. What did he use to do during the war?
® ..................................................................................................................
75. How many workers were there in Frank’s factory at the end of the war?
® .................................................................................................................
PART FIVE:WRITING ( 5.0pts)
I. Choose a mistake from the underlined words in the following sentences and
correct it. (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)
76.Some students are playing games as blind man’s buff and catch.
A
B
C
D
77. Mai learns how to use a computer in her scientific class.
A
B
C
D
78. I’d love coming to your birthday but I’m much too busy.
A
B
C
D
79. There are less TV programs for teenagers than there are for adults.
A
B
C
D
80. People are living longer so there are more and more many old people
A
B
C
D
II. Finish the second sentence in such a way that is similar the original one. (0.2 x
10=2,0 pts)

81. How much is this dictionary ?
-> How much does .....................................................................................................
82. There are over eight hundred stamps in Tim’s collection.
-> Tim’s collection......................................................................................................
83. How old is your father ?
-> What ........................................................................................................................
84. What is your son’s weight
-> How ..........................................................................................................................
85. Mr Pike couldn’t enjoy the meal because of stomachache.
-> The stomachache prevented ......................................................................................
86. You shouldn’t eat too much meat.
-> You’d .........................................................................................................................
87. He is a careful driver.
-> He................................................................................................................................
88. Listening to music at home is more interesting than going to the concert.
-> I prefer ....................................................................................................................
89. It is a six-hour drive from London to Edinburg.
-> It takes......................................................................................
90. My brother drinks more coffee than my sister does.
-My sister drinks …………………………………………………
III. Write a composition about 100 words about your favorite sport: (2.0pts)
........................................................................................................................................

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Lê Thị Thu Thủy
Duyệt của BGH

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM ĐỀ THI OLYMPIC LỚP 7
NĂM HỌC: 2014 – 2015
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
PART ONE: LISTENING (0,2 x 10 =2.0 pts)
Listen to the passage and complete the missing information.
1. own
6. unpleasant

2. or
7. unemployment

3. in
8. who

4. from
9. how

5. do
10. over

PART TWO: PHONETICS (0,2 x 10 =2.0 pts)
I. Choose the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the
others by circling A, B, C, or D: (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)
11
12
13
14
15

D
C
A
A
D

II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the others by circling
A,B,C or D (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)
16
17
18
19
20

B. amazing
B. around
D. audience
C. direction
B. discovery

PART THREE: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR: (0,2 x 30 =6.0 pts)
I. Circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the following sentences: ((0.2 x 1.0
=2.0 pts)
21. D. doesn't 22. boring
belong to
27. fresh
26. studiously

23. I don't,
either
28. well

24. riding

25. as much as

29. in

30. attention

II. Write the correct form of the words given in capital letters: (0.2 x 10 =2.0 pts)
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.

Interesting
Household
Activity
Medical
Weight
Best
Juicy
Invention

39. Useful
40. Less
III. Supply the correct form of the verbs in the brackets. (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)
41. is raining
44. didn’t write/ phoned

42. are meeting
43. are visiting/ visit
45. didn’t visit/ caught

IV. Fill each gap of the following sentences with a suitable preposition. (0.2 x 5 =1.0
pt)
47. from
50. of

46. of
49. at

48. in

PART FOUR: READING: (0.2 x 25 =5.0 pts)
I. Read and circle the best option A, B, C or D to complete the passage: (0.2 x 10
=2.0 pts)
51. C
52. D
53. A
54. B
55. D
56. B
57. D
58. B
59. C
60. C
II. Fill each blank with ONE suitable word to complete the passage: (0.2 x 10 =2.0
pts)
61. with
66. field

62. from
67. left

63. went
68. home

64. are
69. lot

65. ate/ had
70. more

III. Answer the questions. (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)
71. Frank used to work in a small shop when he was a boy.
72. No, he didn’t.
73. In 1938 he bought his own workshop.
74. During the war, he used to make spare part for planes.
75. There were seven hundred and twenty-eight workers.
PART FIVE:WRITING ( 5.0pts)
I. Choose a mistake from the underlined words in the following sentences and
correct it. (0.2 x 5 =1.0 pt)
76. B. as => like
79. A. less => fewer

77. D. scientific => science
80. C. many=> bỏ

78. A. coming => to come

II. Finish the second sentence in such a way that is similar the original one. (0.2 x
10=2,0 pts)
81. How much does this dictionary cost?
82. Tim’s collection has over eight hundred stamps.

83. What is your father’s age?
84. How heavy is your son?
85. The stomachache prevented Mr Pike from enjoying the meal
86. You’d better not eat too much meat.
87. He drives carefully.
88. I prefer listening to music at home to going to the concert.
89. It takes six hours to drive from London to Edinburg.
90. My sister drinks less coffee than my brother (does)
III. Write a composition about 100 words about your favorite sport: (2.0pts)
The essay must have at least three ideas below.
1. Mở bài: Nêu được chủ đề của bài viết.(được 0,5 điểm)
2. Thân bài: Nêu và trình bày được nôi dung về môn thể thao yêu thích
(được 1,0 điểm)
3. Kết luận: Tóm tắt, khẳng định lại tất cả lý do đã trình bày ở hai phần trước.
(được 0,5 điểm)