Đề thi thử Tốt nghiệp THPT môn Tiếng Anh năm 2022

ĐỀ MINH HỌA SỐ 1 Biên soạn: Cô Trang Anh (Đề thi có 07 trang)	ĐỀ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022 Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút; không kể thời gian phát đề

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.

Question 1: A. worked B. stopped C. forced D. amounted

Question 2: A. course B. courtesy C. resource D. force

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.

Question 3: A. focus B. injure C. offer D. provide

Question 4: A. counterpart B. obedience C. aggressive D. tradition

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.

Question 5: As soon as the teacher came in, she _________ John why he ________ to class the previous day.

A. asked/didn’t go B. had asked/hadn’t gone

C. will have asked/hasn’t gone D. asked/hadn’t gone

Question 6: It was not until later _________ the man discovered that he had been cheated by salesgirl.

A. when B. that C. before D. while

Question 7: ________ a scholarship, I entered one of the most privileged universities of the United Kingdom.

A. To award B. Being awarded

C. Having awarded D. Having been awarded

Question 8: She's been promising to pay back the money for six months, but she is forgetfull ____ the promise she has made.

A. at B. with C. to D. of

Question 9: If it hadn't been for the storm, the farmers _________ a great harvest last year.

A. would have B. would have had

C. had had D. should have

Question 10: It would be nice to work with _________ people who accept new ideas.

A. pig-headed B. open-minded C. strong-willed D. single-handed

Question 11: Carl suggested _________ to the gym for a good workout.

A. to go B. going C. to have gone D. having gone

Question 12: When my boyfriend found a fly in his drink, he started to create a scene. Oh, honey, please don't make a ______ with it.

A. fuss B. mess C. play D. scene

Question 13: Descriptive analysis of language merely reflects ______used without concern for the social prestige of these structures.

A. how grammar structures and vocabulary is

B. which are grammar structures and vocabulary

C. how grammar structures and vocabulary are

D. it is how grammar structures and vocabulary are

Question 14: Regular radio broadcasting to inform and entertain the general public started in _______ 1920s.

A. the B. a C. 0 D. an

Question 15: Against all the _______, he won the national song contest and became quite well-known.

A. successes B. failures C. chances D. odds

Question 16: With a good _________ of both Vietnamese and English, Miss Loan was assigned the task of oral interpretation for the visiting American delegation.

A. insight B. knowledge C. command D. proficiency

Question 17: There are some similarities in table _________ of different cultures in the world.

A. ways B. etiquette C. styles D. manners

Question 18: Despite the initial _________ result, they decided to go on with the proposed scheme.

A. courage B. courageous C. discouraged D. discouraging

Question 19: I bought my wife a(n) ______________ hat when I went abroad on a business trip.

A. beautiful large copper Italian B. beautiful large Italian copper

C. beautiful copper large Italian D. Italian beautiful large copper

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 20: All the condition seemed optimal: the congenial company, the wonderful weather, the historic venue.

A. hospitable B. difficult C. advanced D. complex

Question 21: If you’re travelling through a tunnel and your vehicle stops working, a team will be sent out to you immediately.

A. breaks down B. passes away C. gives up D. dozes off

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.

Question 22: In some countries, so few students are accepted by the universities that admission is almost a guarantee of a good job upon graduation.

A. a promise B. an uncertainty C. an assurance D. a pledge

Question 23: The burglar crept into the house without making any noise. That's why no one heard anything.

A. inaudibly B. boisterously C. shrilly D. hurly-burly

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.

A part-time job is generally considered to be employment that is less than 40 hours of work per week. Some employers consider between 32 and 40 hours of work per week to be full-time, (24) ____ part-time jobs are usually classified as anything less than 40 hours.

Working on a part-time schedule has many perks and provides the optimal flexibility needed by some individuals. For example, parents (25) ____ young children, students, and people who have out-of-work (26) _______ often find that part-time work is their only option. Others work in part-time jobs because they are unable to find full-time positions - and working part-time is better for them than not working at all. In some situations, part-time employees can earn as much as full-time employees on an hourly basis, but most employers do not offer (27) ____ such as health insurance, vacation time, and paid holidays to their part-time employees.

There are many pros and cons to working part-time and there are also several specific industries that are known to have many part-time positions available. You should (28) ____ the factors before deciding if a part-time or a full-time position will work better for your specific situation.

Question 24: A. because B. since C. furthermore D. but

Question 25: A. with B. without C. for D. among

Question 26: A. responsibly B. responsibilities C. responsible D. response

Question 27: A. profits B. benefits C. earnings D. rights

Question 28: A. think B. consider C. regard D. believe

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.

Question 29: If there is one thing that all the world's various cultures have been in common, it is marriage.

A B C D

Question 30: Sylvia Earle, an underwater explorer and marine biologist, who was born in the USA in 1935. A B C D

Question 31: The Niagara Falls, one of the world’s most famous waterfalls, lay half in North America and

A B C

half in Canada.

D

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

The relationship between Britain and the US has always been a close one. Like all close relationships it has had difficult times. The US was first a British colony, but between 1775 and 1783 the US fought a war to become independent. The US fought the British again in the War of 1812.

In general, however, the two countries have felt closer to each other than to any other country, and their foreign policies have shown this. During World War I and World War II, Britain and the US supported each other. When the US looks for foreign support, Britain is usually the first country to come forward and it is sometimes called “the 51st state of the union”.

But the special relationship that developed after 1945 is not explained only by shared political interests. An important reason for the friendship is that the people of the two countries are very similar. They share the same language and enjoy each other’s literature, films and television. Many Americans have British ancestors, or relatives still living in Britain. The US government and political system are based on Britain’s, and there are many Anglo-American businesses operating on both sides of the Atlantic. In Britain, some people are worried about the extent of US influence, and there is some jealousy of its current power. The special relationship was strong in the early 1980s when Margaret Thatcher was Prime Minister in Britain and Ronald Reagan was President of the US.

Question 32: What is the passage mainly about?

A. The strong friendship between the UK and the US.

B. The close relationship between Britain and the US

C. A special relationship the UK developed during the World Wars

D. A special influence the US had on the UK during the World Wars

Question 33: The phrase “come forward” in paragraph 2 mostly means _______ .

A. be willing to help B. be able to help

C. be reluctant to help D. be eager to help

Question 34: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______.

A. countries B. people C. political interests D. British ancestors

Question 35: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a reason for the special relationship between Britain and the US?

A. The people of the two countries are similar.

B. Many Americans have British ancestors.

C. British Prime Minister and the US President are close friends.

D. Many Anglo-American businesses are operating in the two countries

Question 36: Britain and the US are close to each other NOT because of their ______.

A. foreign policies B. power C. political interest D. language

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

Saving the planet is very much in vogue. It's also in Harper's Bazaar, Elle and Mademoiselle. It's the message on fashion runways, in marketing strategies, in jewelry and accessory designs, on shopping bags and totes, in advertisements and on price tags.

A naked fashion model wearing a hat of birch branches and lichen, as shown in Vogue this month, may not be everyone's idea of environmental awareness. But the pervasiveness of ecological themes in the images and marketing of fashion is undeniable. It is also somewhat paradoxical. The fashion industry, whose driving philosophy involves encouraging consumers to discard the old and embrace the new, is now trying to push itself to the forefront of efforts to conserve and preserve.

The environmental theme in fashion began as wispy touches and graphic exhortations in designer collections, not as some well-thought-out strategy of ''green'' marketing in which the environmental advantages of a product become part of the sales approach. Tendrils of ivy dangled from the ceiling at a Paris fashion show; a carpet of grass covered a runway in New York; models marched along in T-shirts or carrying signs all bearing slogans like ''Clean Up or Die,'' ''Save the Sphere,'' and ''Environmental Protection Agents.

The environmental spin on fashion has now moved into the mass market, where ''clothes with conscience'' make an extra tug at the buyer's self-image. Bonjour, a jeans and sportswear company based in New York, has embarked on a program to ''change the individual's outlook toward saving the environment'' through educational tags. This summer, the first wave of what Bonjour executives said would be 50 million fashion items a year are to arrive in stores carrying tags with environmental tips from how to save water to how to reduce pollutants.

Whether these tributes to nature will benefit the environment or even raise environmental awareness, with concomitant changes in individual behavior, is not clear. There is some skepticism. Professor Ewen says the new environmental symbolism should be viewed as part of an overall change in America's economy, from one built on industrial production of hard goods to one based on ''pure representation”. “Going back to fashion, the environment has become a commercial cliche separated from real concerns. What can be attached to this year's fashion is merely the symbolism of environmental sanity.''

Question 37: Which best serves as the title for the passage?

A. The green movement in the fashion world

B. The long-forgotten theme of the fashion industry.

C. Fashion and environment can never go hand in hand.

D. Going green is the new big thing.

Question 38: The word “paradoxical” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. inconsistent B. conflicting C. confusing D. zealous

Question 39: According to paragraph 2, why is the green effort of the fashion world so much of an irony?

A. No one has ever imagined the harmonious future of fashion and environment.

B. Fast fashion’s main features are premeditated waste and disposability.

C. It is predicted that the green trend can only remain as a niche market.

D. The concept of ethical fashion was once rejected by the industry.

Question 40: The word “wispy” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.

A. fine B. small C. silvery D. flamboyant

Question 41: According to paragraph 4, what is the main focus of the current green fashion?

A. Attracting wider consumers through the promotion of self-concept.

B. The combination of aesthetics and sustainability.

C. Realistic strategy to deliver a positive message for the environment.

D. Raising global awareness of the environmental conservation.

Question 42: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?

A. The initial manifestation of green fashion is relatively superficial.

B. Creating eco-conscious fashion does not take away anything from the beauty of the garments.

C. Not many fashion brands pay attention to the prospect of the eco-friendly element.

D. The contradiction between green fashion’s approach and motto is unreal.

Question 43: The word “one” in paragraph 5 refers to _____.

A. economy B. change C. symbolism D. environment

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.

Question 44: My father is the most handsome man I have ever known.

A. I have never known a more handsome man than my father.

B. My father is not as handsome as the men I have ever known.

C. I have ever known such a handsome man. It’s my father.

D. No man in the world is as handsome as my father.

Question 45: “Nowhere can I find a kind man like you”, she said to him.

A. She said that she could find a kind man like him anywhere.

B. She told him that nowhere could she find a kind man like you.

C. She told him that nowhere could she find a kind man like him.

D. She said to him that nowhere she could find a kind man like him.

Question 46: It is a pity he was late for the job interview.

A. I think he mustn't have been late for the job interview.

B. I hear he hasn't been late for the job interview.

C. I remember he wasn't late for the job interview.

D. I wish he hadn't been late for the job interview.

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes the following exchanges.

Question 47: - "May I speak to Dr. Thomas, please?"
- "____________________. "

A. I'm sorry, he's seeing a patient at the moment.

B. Yes, you may and he will connect you later.

C. That's fine, but I don't think he's working now.

D. No, you can't as he must be free in a few minutes.

Question 48: – Jack: “John, you look terrible! What’s wrong with you?”
- John: “_________”

A. Thanks for your question. B. I was so sick yesterday.

C. The weather will be better. D. You must be wrong, too.

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.

Question 49: David loves Hannah. That’s why he bought tickets for her live show last week.

A. David loves Hannah so much that he bought tickets for her live show last week.

B. Although David loves Hannah, he bought tickets for her live show last week.

C. David loves Hannah too much to buy tickets for her live show last week.

D. Much as David loves Hannah, he bought tickets for her live show last week.

Question 50: You did not tell her the truth. It was wrong of you.

A. You must have told her the truth.

B. You should have told her the truth.

C. You may have told her the truth.

D. You could have told her the truth.

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